I am an adoptive mother. Years after adopting two children I have learned that 80% of children NOT living with a biological parent was exposed prenatal to alcohol. 4-5% of the entire population of the developed world is so impaired by prenatal alcohol exposure that if the resources existed to actually diagnose everyone, they would have a diagnosis of Fetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorder. This disorder impairs the typical development of the brain and body. My child has FASD as well as 4 other diagnoses that are as a direct result of the fewer and less connected neurons and reduced speed of conduction. My child has impaired coordination, initiation, language skills and has an intellectual disability. It is expected that my child will not be able to care for themselves and will likely live in a group home unless supports fail and is homeless because no one understands the disabilities and helps when I am no longer around. The alcohol consumed during pregnancy was done responsibly… one to two beer a couple times a week. This would not be considered overindulgence. There is NO safe amount of alcohol use during pregnancy. As I have grieved this diagnosis I have reflected on how I have contributed, if any, to the social acceptance of alcohol consumption. My contribution is very little. My experience is that alcohol smells bad, tastes worse, burns going down and alters who you are and what you do. I cannot think of another individual who has done more to promote the production, and consumption of alcohol than Jesus: **the first miracle involves turning water into wine, and it is a critical element in some churches' communion**. It has become more than difficult for me to praise him after this life experience. If the purpose of the wine is to provide joy and gladness then it’s unlikely that it was just fresh unfermented juice. While wine and juice may not have been linguistically distinguished until more recently, I don’t think it’s plausible that when speaking of wine this was always fresh unfermented juice because there is a harvest time and a single time of year to make wine. It would be impossible to source just juice year round for something like communion. Wine would have almost always been actual wine with alcohol. So with the discussion about wine not really being wine out of the way, can anyone help me view this from another angle? And if you haven’t guessed, I really don’t relate to the idea of alcohol actually gladdening effectively. I am certainly not feeling the gladness watching my children struggle everyday with simple things. **Why would Jesus perpetuate the use of alcohol?** He either didn’t know, or he did know but did it anyway. My faith has experienced significant rupture. Sadly. I wish it were not so.

According to the Catholic Church, do the bread and wine literally become the body and blood of Christ when a Protestant church observes the Lord's Supper? What if the church uses grape juice that does not meet the Catholic requirements for mustum?

We all know that Jesus could make water into wine but was he an alcoholic?

I was reading "When the Bible talks about wine does it mean alcoholic wine? " and I thought, The Last Supper was during the Passover, when the Jews ware forbidden to use leaven: > **Exodus 12:15 KJV** > Seven days shall ye eat unleavened bread; even the > first day ye shall put away leaven out of your houses: for whosoever > eateth leavened bread from the first day until the seventh day, that > soul shall be cut off from Israel. This implies that the wine used in the The Last Supper was just grape juice, right?

Whether, or not, grapes destined for temple sacrificial offerings were grown in Nazareth is similar to the question of whether sacrificial sheep were raised in the area of Bethlehem. It has a bearing on the teachings of Jesus and their spiritual meanings in that it functions in a typological sense to help illuminate the prophetic fulfillment of Jesus as the paschal "lamb of God" and the "vine" that represents Israel. Did Jesus grow up in a town where wine grapes were grown that were destined for temple sacrificial libations? If so, it would impact Christian devotional reflections on Jesus' parable of the vine and the branches. In two different places on *Stack Exchange* I have inquired about where certain locations, mentioned in the Mishnah, are in modern times. Contained in the Mishnah are exact locations where wine grapes destined for temple sacrifices were located. This quote from Asaph Goor, in reference to those specific locations in which sacrificial wine grape growing took place, got me interested in the subject: > The Mishna also (Menahot, 8, 6) points to the regions where the best wine-making grapes were grown: ‘Kerutim and Hatoulim were alpha (first class) for wine (both are points in Judaea); second to them are Beit-Rima and Beit-Lavan in the mountains of Samaria and Kfar Signa in the valley’ (in Lower Galilee). Where can these regions be found on a map? I have asked it at Judaism.SE and also the History section . In one of the responses , LаngLаngС writes (emphasis added):

 > Beit Lavan–ּבית ָלָבן:ֵ Some identify this as the Arab village Luban, > located near Beit Rima. This region was home to an extensive > production of wine, even in later eras. **Others suggest this is the > city of Nazareth located in the Galilee, which was known in ancient > times as Beit Lavan.** I have not been able to verify that Nazareth was ever called Beit Lavan (a second class place for sacrificial wine grape growing). And considering it is not in mountains of Samaria, as Asaph Goor suggests, it is rather odd for it to be Nazareth. Still, a devotional question comes up, "Is there is any church literature that contains such a suggestion?


 What makes this question especially provocative is that the first century writers, Columella (R.R.4.19) and Pliny (N.H. 17.178-81) describe high end trellis systems that utilized reeds for supporting the vines along with high wooden posts and one cross bar per post. They describe how the poles should be at least 4’ tall, but not more than 7’ tall. This was likely done to allow sheep to graze underneath - e.g. nibbling at suckers, doing leaf pruning, adding fertilizer and working the cover crops on the ground.

Anglicans customarily take a specially produced red wine as part of the service of Holy Communion. For small churches and congregations a fortified wine such as sherry will keep its condition once opened for a lot longer. Is it acceptable, irregular, or actually banned in church law to use sherry for this purpose?

We see a part of the institution Holy Eucharist at Mtt 26: 27-28 (NRSVCE): > Then he took a cup, and after giving thanks he gave it to them, saying, “Drink from it, all of you; for this is my blood of the covenant, which is poured out for many for the forgiveness of sins." Jesus goes on to say at Mt 26: 29: > I tell you, I will never again drink of this fruit of the vine until that day when I drink it new with you in my Father’s kingdom. Remember that Jesus was celebrating the the Passover which was the Feast of Unleavened Bread. Now, we see Yahweh , while preparing Israel for the first Passover,giving stern instructions on the use of leaven at Ex 12:14-15: > This day shall be a day of remembrance for you. You shall celebrate it as a festival to the Lord; throughout your generations you shall observe it as a perpetual ordinance. Seven days you shall eat unleavened bread; on the first day you shall remove leaven from your houses, for whoever eats leavened bread from the first day until the seventh day shall be cut off from Israel Connecting the two, one wonders whether Jesus really used wine in the Last Supper, which was a commemoration of Passover. In fact, wine which is the product of fermentation does not go hand-in-hand with the unleavened bread ,and Jesus would be the last the break the instructions at Exodus! But then, if Jesus did not drink wine, what did he drink ? Simple: fresh grape juice. We see at Song of Solomon 8:12 that drinking of fresh juice had been prevalent since ancient times: > I would give you spiced wine to drink, the juice of my pomegranates. Now, the Catholic Church all across the world has traditionally been using bread and wine to commemorate the Last Supper . Of course, wine has much higher shelf-life than has fresh grape juice , and it may be impossible for the sacristan to prepare fresh grape juice day after day for the Eucharist especially during the lean season of grapes. But, one really wonders if what Jesus drank at the Last Supper was wine or fresh grape juice . My question therefore is: **Did Jesus really use wine at the Last Supper? Has the Catholic Church made any research into the prospects of Jesus having used fresh grape juice?**

The Orthodox are required to fast from "wine" and "olive oil" most Wednesdays and Fridays, for Lent, the Dormition of the Theotokos, the Nativity, and other fasts. Nearly all Orthodox define "wine" as any alcoholic beverage. There are probably not any whom define "wine" as only wine and continue to drink beer and spirits on a fast day. A majority of Orthodox define "olive oil" as simply olive oil; in other words, canola oil, vegetable oil, and any other vegan oil that is not olive oil is permitted for the majority of Orthodox members. There are some (a small minority) whom abstain from all the oils, and even some whom eat everything "dry" (xerophagia), such as pasta without tomato sauce. As a matter of consistency, it would appear to me that if one were to define olive oil as only olive oil, then one would also define wine as only wine. It is true that the taste of olive oil is relatively superior to canola oil; however, it is hard to imagine that if canola oil existed in the first century that the Church would have permitted it. Here are my questions: **What was the original purpose of the inclusion of wine in the items of fasting?** I have read that people didn't drink water much back then, because it was very contaminated, instead opting for low-alcoholic beer or wine because it was much less contaminated. This could potentially lead one to the conclusion that "wine" was included as to encourage fasting from water, rather than intoxicating substances. Or, that piece of history could be a red herring, and the fast from "wine" simply does mean a fast from intoxicating substances. For example, in Canons 51 and 53 of the [Apostolic Canons](http://www.voskrese.info/spl/aposcanon.html) , wine is juxtaposed with marital relations, which the Orthodox also abstain from on fast days, implying that the fast from wine is a fast from the pleasurable effects of intoxicating substances; however, exercising, smoking, reading, laughing, and all other pleasurable activities except sex and food are permitted on fast days. (As an aside, how did Christians consume water during fast days if it was only available to them in low-alcoholic beer/wine?) **What was the original purpose of the inclusion of olive oil in the items of fasting?** I have read that in the first century olive oil was the only oil available, and the people tended to use it on all foods to substantially improve taste, and even used it on the skin, which was thought to make one look better. If this was the case than it is difficult for me to understand why canola oil is permitted in the majority of the Church. Perhaps there is some other component to olive oil that I am missing, or perhaps my assumption that canola oil is tolerated in the majority of the Church is incorrect?

I assume that at some point in the 2000 year history, there were churches that found it hard to obtain wine at some point. What did the church teach could or should be done in these situations?

In my denomination (Free Methodist) and a number of other protestant denominations, grape juice is used for communion rather than wine. There is (of course) a longstanding back-and-forth between Christian denominations when it comes to alcohol in general, but the question of wine vs. grape juice in the context of communion is what interests me here. Specifically, a few years ago I was listening to a radio talk show where the guests were discussing this issue. One of guests stated that John Calvin had once recommended wine as the only appropriate drink for communion, because -- unlike grape juice -- wine combines sweetness and bitterness, which makes a more effective metaphor for the sweetness and bitterness of Jesus' sacrifice on the cross. I've spent some time trying to search out the original source of this quote but had no luck. Can anyone point me to where it comes from? (Assuming, of course, that the guest on the radio show had his facts straight.)

According to Catholicism, does the usage of [Welch’s Grape Juice](http://www.welchs.com/products/100-juices/purple-grape/100-grape-juice) constitute valid matter for the consecration of the Eucharist at a Catholic Mass? Some priests who are alcoholics may obtain a dispensation to use Mustum at Mass. The question of the validity of the use of “mustum,” or grape juice, for priests suffering from alcoholism or for some other medical reason was finally resolved by the Congregation for the Doctrine of the Faith in 1994 in a letter signed by then Cardinal Joseph Ratzinger. Among other things this letter stated: > “A. The preferred solution continues to be communion ‘per intinctionem,’ or in concelebration under the species of bread alone. > > “B. Nevertheless, the permission to use ‘mustum’ can be granted by ordinaries to priests affected by alcoholism or other conditions which prevent the ingestion of even the smallest quantity of alcohol, after presentation of a medical certificate. > > “C. By ‘mustum’ is understood fresh juice from grapes or juice preserved by suspending its fermentation (by means of freezing or other methods which do not alter its nature). > > “D. In general, those who have received permission to use ‘mustum’ are prohibited from presiding at concelebrated Masses. There may be some exceptions however: in the case of a bishop or superior general; or, with prior approval of the ordinary, at the celebration of the anniversary of priestly ordination or other similar occasions. In these cases the one who presides is to communicate under both the species of bread and that of ‘mustum,’ while for the other concelebrants a chalice shall be provided in which normal wine is to be consecrated.” - [Use of Mustum at Mass](https://zenit.org/articles/use-of-mustum-at-mass/) Here is an interesting note on the subject of Welch’s Grape Juice and the Eucharist in the Methodist Church. > The method of pasteurizing grape juice to halt the fermentation has been attributed to a British–American physician and dentist, Thomas Bramwell Welch (1825–1903) in 1869. Welch was an adherent to the Wesleyan Methodist Connexion which strongly opposed "manufacturing, buying, selling, or using intoxicating liquors" and advocated the use of unfermented grape juice instead of wine for administering the sacrament of the Eucharist, or communion, during the church service. A few years earlier, Welch had relocated to Vineland, New Jersey, a town started in 1861 by Philadelphia land developer Charles K. Landis (1833–1900) to create his own alcohol-free utopian society, a "Temperance Town" based on agriculture and progressive thinking. Landis declared that he was "about to build a city, and an agricultural and fruit-growing colony around it." The population reached 5,500 by 1865. Landis determined the potential in growing grapes and named the settlement "Vineland", and advertised to attract Italian grape growers to Vineland, offering 20 acres (81,000 m2) of land that had to be cleared and used to grow grapes. Welch had moved to the region following his sister who was one of Vineland's earliest residents and began to produce an "unfermented wine" (grape juice) from locally grown grapes that was marketed as "Dr. Welch's Unfermented Wine". This product became "Welch's Grape Juice" in 1893 when Welch and his son Charles E. Welch (also a practicing dentist) had decided to incorporate in 1893 as the Welch's Grape Juice Company at Westfield, New York. - [History of Welch's Grape Juice](https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Welch%27s) The reason I wish to bring this up is that I have come across priests using Welch’s Grape 🍇 Juice at Mass. The chalice was subsequently offered to the faithful present. **Has the Catholic Church pronounced on such a scenario as being valid or not?**

In any Catholic Mass I attended (in Germany) white wine was used for the holy Eucharist. There are some plausible practical reasons for that. Are there regions of the world where mostly red wine is used?

In any Catholic mass I attended (in Germany) white wine was used for the holy Eucharist. There are some plausible practical reasons for that. But, as far as I know, red wine was the normal wine in antiquity. So when the use of white wine in mass started? Were there discussions on the validity of Eucharist with white wine? Were there the opinion, that one could but shouldn't use white wine and red wine would be better?

In discussions I have had in the past over the acceptability of a Christian drinking alcohol I have heard that some 'dry' believers say that the wine in the Bible was not wine as we know it commonly today. It was actually non-alcoholic grape juice. I personally believe that the wine of Jesus' day is the wine that we know. Is there any Biblical/historical evidence to the contrary, that the wine of the past was non-fermented juice?

A strange passage in the beginning of Genesis contains the account of Noah who, after surviving the flood, planted a vineyard and made wine. After he drank the wine and became drunk one of his sons (Ham) sees him naked, tells his two brothers about it and they cover Noah up. After Noah wakes up he figures out what has gone on while he is asleep and curses Ham and his descendants. Here is the passage: Genesis 9:20-27 (KJV) > **20** And Noah began to be an husbandman, and he planted a vineyard: **21** And he drank of the wine, and was drunken; and he was uncovered within his tent. **22** And Ham, the father of Canaan, saw the nakedness of his father, and told his two brethren without. **23** And Shem and Japheth took a garment, and laid it upon both their shoulders, and went backward, and covered the nakedness of their father; and their faces were backward, and they saw not their father's nakedness. **24** And Noah awoke from his wine, and knew what his younger son had done unto him. **25** And he said, Cursed be Canaan; a servant of servants shall he be unto his brethren. **26** And he said, Blessed be the LORD God of Shem; and Canaan shall be his servant. **27** God shall enlarge Japheth, and he shall dwell in the tents of Shem; and Canaan shall be his servant. What is meaning/significance of this passage? I have heard that it was used to justify slavery in the 17th and 18th century. I suspect that the Israelites used it to justify their invasion of Canaan in ancient times. Is there not a better, more spiritual or redemptive interpretation on this passage?

A discussion in chat today has lead me to this question. Most of us should be familiar with the debate about whether Jesus drank alcoholic wine, or some other form of wine, or simple grape juice. My question isn't about settling that debate, however. My question is essentially asking when did the debate begin? What is the history of "Jesus only drank grape juice" interpretation?

Some say that the bible allows drinking alcohol, saying that Jesus himself made alcoholic wine at the wedding in Cana. In the Old Testament the demarcation between new wine (tee-roshe [Deuteronomy 7:13]) and old wine (yah yin [Genesis 9:21]) is clear, whereas in the new testament it is vague (oy-nos [Luke 5:37]). But 1 Cor 6:10 is clear that drunkards will not inherit the kingdom.

What would happen if someone (a priest, parishioner, deacon or anyone) spills the wine during a Eucharist service at a Catholic church?