I am not so sharp on Theology, but I want to present to you something that I have been thinking about. God clearly says when something is bad and we shouldn’t do it. But God also said He hates divorce, meaning its some kind of evil, because God hates evil. Now, if God hates evil, why would He approve of doing it? Not just “allow” it in the sense that He gave us free will, because in that, it makes sense. In that point, God doesn’t allow x but because of free will, He lets it happen. But in the case of divorce or polygamy, God hated these because they are evil in His sight. The thing is, He didn’t say “its wrong and you shouldn’t do it, but since you have a free will, you can choose to or not to do it. But regardless, its still wrong” He didn't say that in polygamy or divorce. He allowed a form of it (regulated) even if He hates it and sees it as evil. So when we do it, its like “it's okay, as long as you are following the regulations”. So that goes against Him that He can’t view evil, yet He allows it (meaning He doesn’t count it as a sin). However, I’ve seen some answers like: “God doesn’t approve of divorce nor of polygamy, but because it still persists, its better to regulate it to minimize harm” By that logic, why can’t we just allow sins altogether because we continually sin, yet God bans it outright? And if God doesn’t approve of it morally, yet continues to do it anyway (by actually stating that we can do it and there is no sin in us if we do), then is He immoral because He goes against what He deems evil?

Why did Joseph Smith condone, or perhaps even encourage polygamy? What scriptures, if any, support this practice?

Today I was debating with a Christian who believes in polygamy and claimed that the Early Church Fathers allowed for the act of polygamy, is that true and is there any evidence that the Early Church condemned the act of polygamy (ie marriage to more than one spouse at a time).

How many wives can a Christian have is it allowed to have 4 or 3 wives? Can I have marriage of multiple women as a believing christian?

In the Journal of Discourses, LDS apostles suggest that Jesus Himself was married, that He had children, and that He and His disciples endorsed polygamy. > It will be borne in mind that once on a time, there was a marriage in Cana of Galilee; and on a careful reading of that transaction, it will be discovered that no less a person than **Jesus Christ was married** on that occasion. Journal of Discourses, Volume 4, Page 259 > >What did the old Prophet mean when he said (speaking of Christ), “**He shall see his seed**, prolong his days, &c.” Did Jesus consider it necessary to fulfil every righteous command or requirement of his Father? He most certainly did. This be witnessed by submitting to baptism under the hands of John. “Thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness,” said he. Was it God's commandment to man, in the beginning, to multiply and replenish the earth? None can deny this, neither that it was a righteous command; for upon an obedience to this, depended the perpetuity of our race. Did Christ come to destroy the law or the Prophets, or to fulfil them? He came to fulfil. **Did he multiply**, and did he see his seed? Did he honor his Father's law by complying with it, or did he not? Others may do as they like, **but I will not charge our Savior with neglect or transgression in this or any other duty**. Journal of Discourses, Volume 4, Page 260 > > The grand reason of the burst of public sentiment in anathemas upon Christ and his disciples, causing his crucifixion was evidently based upon **polygamy**, according to the testimony of the philosophers who rose in that age. A belief in the doctrine of a **plurality of wives** caused the persecution of Jesus and his followers. We might almost think they were "Mormons". Journal of Discourses, Volume 1, Page 346. Was this ever the official teaching of the LDS Church? If so, what biblical support for these doctrines is there?

This question asks whether any Early Church Fathers condemned polygamy. The answer seems to be 'yes'. Did any Early Church Fathers **approve** of polygamy?

In some countries polygamy is still legal, at least in some cases. For example apparently in UAE a man can have up to 4 wives . Considering that LDS has 1699 members in UAE according to their statistics page , it seems possible to be an LDS member in that country. Since polygamy is legal there, would the LDS church allow it for their members there?

In [Exodus 21:10](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Exodus%2021:10&version=KJV) and [Deuteronomy 21:15-16](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Deuteronomy%2021:15-16&version=NIV) (among many other passages), it talks about polygamy as if it were acceptable. Indeed, there are several holy men (Abraham and Solomon come to mind offhand) that had multiple wives. It seems pretty clear that God doesn't mind polygamy and that it is allowed. Why is there a modern-day restriction on such practices? **Edit**
As has been pointed out, I'm using "polygamy" in the modern/popular sense (such as "polygamy camps" of the FLDS group). Truly, the actual word is "polygyny", which is a man marrying multiple wives. Other forms of polygamy (polyandry and such) seem pretty clearly against God's word. **Edit 2**
Per a comment, I'm seeking any answer from any denomination/doctrine that does not support polygamy. Although there are a few denominations that do, I'm not interested in their history so much.

I recently learned that in 1540, Martin Luther secretly approved of the bigamous marriage of Philip of Hesse. Philip had married for political purposes, and then fell in love with someone else. Philip appealed to the example of the Old Testament patriarchs, and apparently his wife did not object to his marrying again, so Philip turned to several theologians, including Luther, as Woodbridge and James write: > Philip sought out Luther, as well as Melanchthon and Martin Bucer, as to the permissibility of a bigamous marriage. Luther had argued years earlier, regarding Henry VIII and Queen Catherine of Aragon, that bigamy was preferable to divorce. Luther fatefully approved the bigamous marriage, partly out of concern for Philip's troubled conscience and partly out of political expediency. It was a decision that would cost many lives and nearly destroy Lutheranism itself. ([*Church History*, II, 3.IV.A](https://books.google.com/books?id=Xg0vAu9M-WQC&lpg=PP1&pg=PT112)) Naturally the secret got out and the resulting controversy seriously weakened Philip and, by extension, Lutheranism. Luther died six years later, so he would have seen some of the results of his approval. I'd like to know if Luther repented or otherwise expressed that it was morally wrong for him to have approved of this bigamy. I distinguish that from a mere admission that the approval was inexpedient or unwise, but if only the latter is available, that would be interesting to see as well.

In March 1844, Joseph Smith organized a special council in the Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints known as the Council of Fifty. Much has been written about the nature and purpose of this organization, which I won't recapitulate here, as that is beyond the scope of my question. My interest in this council is very specific. I simply want to know how many Council members (and who those members were) that practiced plural marriage. This includes whether they practiced it in Nauvoo or later. I'm *only* interested in the original members of this Council that were initiated by Joseph Smith during the Nauvoo period, not the ones who were added later after his death. There are lists of the members of this council at: - Wikipedia - The Joseph Smith Papers - PDF version with dates of membership in the Council - *The Council of Fifty and Its Members, 1844 to 1945* by D. Michael Quinn - *"It Seems Like Heaven Began on Earth": Joseph Smith and the Constitution of the Kingdom of God* by Andrew F. Ehat , extracted from William Clayton's Journal, April 18, 1844. As far as I know, no one has yet compiled a list which correlates how many members (or what percentage of the members) of the Council of Fifty also practiced plural marriage, either in Nauvoo or later. I would like a list of how many Council members practiced it and what their names were. If anyone has a paper, book, article, etc., which makes this correlation, that would be helpful.

I’ve been reading a bit into 1 Samuel, and came across something that confused me: > **1 Samuel 25:43 NIV** > David had also married Ahinoam of Jezreel, and they both were his wives. But, in Genesis, we read how one single man unites as one with his single wife, as shown below: > **Genesis 2:24 NIV** > That is why a man leaves his father and mother and is united to his wife, and they become one flesh. So, why would God allow people after his own heart, such as King David, to participate in this act?

I've seen people advocate widow celibate for the reason of a happy reunion of the marriage bond in Heaven. As I understand it, this appeal is based on the rejection of polygamy, which is based on the rejection of lustful feelings towards a woman outside the marriage which is considered a lechery . According to a Czech master's thesis I've read, Christianity has surmounted polygamy as Jesus establishes the equality of man and woman: "*There is neither Jew nor Gentile, neither slave nor free, nor is there male and female, for you are all one in Christ Jesus.*" Galatians 3:28 However, I don't consider this a sufficient basis. So what does Christianity base the rejection of polygamy and widow remmariage base upon? Thank you!

I have a question regarding what the LDS Church view of 1 Timothy 3:2 and 3:12 was during the times when they supported polygamy. **Background information for my question:** One of the earliest formal statements about polygamy by the Mormon church was the 1943 revelation by the founder of the church, Joseph Smith . This revelation was codified in the 1870s in the church's Doctrine and Covenants section 132 . Paragraphs 61-63 of this section is quoted below. > 61 And again, as pertaining to the law of the priesthood—if any man > espouse a virgin, and desire to espouse another, and the first give > her consent, and if he espouse the second, and they are virgins, and > have vowed to no other man, then is he justified; he cannot commit > adultery for they are given unto him; for he cannot commit adultery > with that that belongeth unto him and to no one else. > > 62 And if he have ten virgins given unto him by this law, he cannot > commit adultery, for they belong to him, and they are given unto him; > therefore is he justified. > > 63 But if one or either of the ten virgins, after she is espoused, > shall be with another man, she has committed adultery, and shall be > destroyed; for they are given unto him to multiply and replenish the > earth, according to my commandment, and to fulfil the promise which > was given by my Father before the foundation of the world, and for > their exaltation in the eternal worlds, that they may bear the souls > of men; for herein is the work of my Father continued, that he may be > glorified. The LDS Church did eventually stop promoting polygamy however. The final nail to its coffin seems to have been the Second Manifesto of 1904 by then President of the Church, Joseph Fielding Smith . Still the article "After the Manifesto: Mormon Polygamy 1890-1906 " makes claims that indicate support for polygamy high in the Church hierarchy as late as 1898. The article says on pp. 28-29: > Among the Quorum of the Twelve and the First Presidency between 1890 > and 1898, at least 58 percent of the members took an active part in > post-Manifesto polygamy. If Matthias Cowley and Owen Woodruff are > included, the proportion is 70 percent. Historical records > indicate that only two men seem to have had qualms about the > continuation of polygamy during President Woodruff’s lifetime: Francis > M. Lyman and Lorenzo Snow. **Qualifications for bishops and deacons in 1 Timothy chapter 3:** 1 Timothy chapter 3 lists the qualifications expected from those assigned to the positions of deacons and bishops in the first century congregations. 1 Timothy 3:2 lists some of the qualifications for bishops: > A bishop then must be blameless, the **husband of one wife**, > vigilant, sober, of good behaviour, given to hospitality, apt to > teach; And 1 Timothy 3:12 includes similar requirements for deacons: > Let the deacons be the **husbands of one wife**, ruling their children > and their own houses well. **Questions:** Considering the paragraphs quoted from Doctrine and Covenants section 132, and the overall support for polygamy in the Church hierarchy until late 1800's, it seems that at that time a church member could be in good standing with more than one wife. This seems different from the expectations listed in 1 Timothy ch. 3. What would have been the LDS Church view of these requirements in 1 Timothy ch. 3 during the time they supported polygamy?

Just to be clear, polygamy and group sex go against my conscience. I am a Christian, and I ask this question sincerely. Polygamy is not explicitly or unambiguously forbidden in the Bible. In fact, it is regulated (see, for example, Exodus 21:10 ), and wise patriarchs saw no problem in marrying many women (see, for example, 1 Kings 11:3 ). *First,* in the polygamy-practising society described in the Bible, if one were in a polygamous marriage, would group sex within that marriage be morally acceptable? Normally group sex involves committing the sin of fornication or adultery, but I do not see what sin it would be in a polygamous culture. *Second,* is there any biblical, historical, or cultural grounds to think that any of the polygamists in the Bible would have actually engaged in group sex, regardless of whether their society considered it morally acceptable?

I've read this claim on a reddit post1 that 19th century Mormon Utah is usually understood as barbaric and very sexist towards women, especially due to polygamy. However the poster argues that 19th century Mormonism was actually very feminist for its time. My question is, was 19th Century and early 20th Century Utah as feminist as this post claims? What other evidence is there to support the claim? What evidence is there that doesn't support it? I posted and formatted the arguments from the reddit post below. > **Utah lead the nation on women's sufferage** > > In 1870 Utah was the second state or territory to grant women the > right to vote. > > Even though it was anti-polygamy groups that started the movement, > leaders of the Church, including Brigham Young, actually encouraged > it. > > The federal government thought Polygamy was barbaric, so they passed > Edmunds-Tucker antipolygamy act in 1887 to outlaw it. Apparently the > government also viewed women's right to vote as barbaric, so Edmunds > Tucker Act also ended women's suffrage in Utah as well as outlawing > Polygamy. > > That right to vote wasn't won back until 1895, and again, a majority > of church leaders, both make and female, supported it. > > http://historytogo.utah.gov/utah_chapters/statehood_and_the_progressive_era/womenssuffrageinutah.html > > ---------- > > **Utah had the most liberal divorce laws, basically granting a divorce > any women who wanted one, very different from rest of the US.** > > In the majority of the United States, women were almost seen as slaves > to their husbands, and because of that, it was very difficult for > women to obtain a divorce, even sometimes under circumstances of > abuse. However, according to Wikipedia "Late-19th-century Utah also > had the most liberal divorce laws in the United States at the time. > The laws were advantageous to women: any woman who insisted on a > divorce got one." > > https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mormonism_and_women#Women.27s_Suffrage > > In fact, One of Brigham Young’s clerks explained: “As a rule, the > Prest. [Brigham Young] never refuses a bill [of divorcement] on the > application of a wife, and NEVER when she INSISTS on it.” > > https://www.lds.org/topics/plural-marriage-and-families-in-early-utah?lang=eng&_r=1&old=true#19 > > ---------- > > **Utah was the first state to elect a women as a state senator.** > > In 1912 Utah was the first state to elect a women as state senator. > They elected Martha Hughes Cannon (interesting enough, she even was > running against her husband when she won). > > Martha Cannon is a very interesting person. She was the fourth of six > wives in a polygamous marriage. Yet she attended the University of > Deseret, now called the University of Utah, receiving a Bachelors in > Chemistry. From there she attended the University of Michigan and > received her MD. She was a feminist and a very influencias womens > rights pusher in Utah. That's only a small portion of her life. And > the more I've researched, the more I've found that women in Utah were > more independent and had more rights than the rest of the United > States at that same time, even those involved in Polygamy. > > https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Martha_Hughes_Cannon > > ---------- > > I've found that 19th century Utah was a very feminist state compared > to the rest of the United States. 1 https://www.reddit.com/r/exmormon/comments/6nvxj8/mormonisms_effect_on_womens_rights_in_utah/

Did they refer to them as their step-moms? Their Dad's nth wife? Half-sibling's mom? What was the common terminology used by Mormons back in the day when they practiced polygamy for describing family relationships between mothers and their husband's children from other wives?

Leviticus 18:18: > Do not take your wife’s sister as a rival wife and have sexual relations with her while your wife is living. I always wondered why it says it like this. Instead of, "do not marry your wife's sister while she is alive," it says not to take her as a "rival wife" specifically. What does that mean?

The Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints (LDS) at one time performed and recognized polygamous marriages. In (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/1890_Manifesto) , they ceased performing new polygamous marriages but continued to recognize polygamy (existing polygamous relationships were not dissolved, but no new polygamous marriages could be performed by the LDS church). Did the LDS church ever recognize, or have a procedure for recognizing, polygamous marriages entered into under the rules of another religion? For example, Islam [permits a man to have up to four wives](https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/40481/does-quran-43-forbid-marrying-more-than-four-wives/40483#40483) . If a polygamous Muslim converted to the LDS faith, was there (or is there) a structure, policy, practice, or principle in place to recognize them immediately as a polygamous Mormon upon conversion, or were polygamous marriages "stripped" from converts in a sense? Marriages performed outside of the LDS church [are](http://eom.byu.edu/index.php/Marriage) recognized by the LDS church as valid (though not eternal), but it is unclear if only *monogamous* marriages are thus recognized or whether they consider any marriage that is not inherently repugnant to the laws of God to be valid. Islam [*does*](https://www.sunnah.com/abudawud/13/67/) recognize non-Muslim polygamy for persons converting to Islam to the extent that the polygamy does not violate the rules of marriage in Islam (in the referenced hadith, a convert to Islam who already had more wives than is allowed in Islam was allowed to choose which wives to keep), so it stands to reason that accommodation of polygamous converts to a faith is a realistic concern. I will admit that mid-1800's Middle America wasn't exactly swarming with polygamous Muslims or polygamous followers of other faiths, so this was not a day-to-day concern, but still someone must have thought about the theory and what would eventually be done if the sphere of polygamous Mormons were to expand across the world. If the LDS church had a procedure for adjudicating the validity or acceptability of a polygamous marriage solemnized outside of the LDS faith, that counts as an answer, even if that procedure was never invoked in any actual cases.

Polygyny is practiced in the Bible with God's full knowledge. What about polyandry? Many say that Western values are based on Judeo-Christian principles. One western value is that marriage is gender neutral. Is marriage gender-neutral in the Bible? Polygyny was legal. What about polyandry? I mean if the Judeo-Christian concept of marriage is gender neutral, we would expect polyandry to be as legal as polygyny right? So what's the story?

Assuming the Old Covenant is obsolete and fulfilled (Heb 7:18-19 ), what is the biblical argument against allowing the practice of polygamy?