Some people believe the King James Version of the Bible is the only version English-speakers should be using, as it is the only inspired translation. (This is referred to as "KJV-onlyism.") Basically, the KJV-only position is that: - The Bible is God's word - God promises to preserve His word * E.G., [Psalm 12:7 (read this article)](http://www.kjvtoday.com/home/does-the-second-them-in-psalm-127-refer-to-gods-words) - This preservation is accomplished via a perfect translation (one per language) - The KJV is His perfect, preserved translation in the English language - The reason other English Bibles differ from the KJV is because those other Bibles have been tainted by sin and error **What are the main counterarguments to this view?** I am specifically looking for answers which would be convincing to an English-speaking Protestant with a high view of Scripture.

Rather than assuming Wikipedia is accurate, I thought I'd as for a better sourced answer to the question. Wikipedia's article on the Word of Faith movement lists various controversies regarding Word of Faith teachings. Among them is the "Little gods controversy" > Many Word of Faith teachers have sought to emphasize the full meaning > of the believer's status as a child of God (through Christ) by using > phrases such as "little gods" to describe them, a practice that has > garnered some criticism from some other segments of the Christian > community. And later on... > Suffer the Children, a documentary highlighting some of the teachings > of the Word of Faith movement, has a video clip of Creflo Dollar > teaching the "little gods" doctrine to his congregation based on the > notion that "everything reproduces after its own kind": > > - Dollar: "If horses get together, they produce what?" > - Congregation: "Horses!" > - Dollar: "If dogs get together, they produce what?" > - Congregation: "Dogs!" > - Dollar: "If cats get together, they produce what?" > - Congregation: "Cats!" > - Dollar: "So if the Godhead says 'Let us make man in our image', and everything produces after its own kind, then they produce what?" > - Congregation: "gods!" > - Dollar: "gods. Little "g" gods. You're not human. Only human part of you is this flesh you're wearing." So what is the teaching? Do they teach that people are truly divine? (Compared to, for example, the mainstream or the LDS definition of divinity ) I want to be very clear that I'm not interested in hearing criticisms and comparisons from the other segments of the Christian community. I'm not interested in whether the "little gods" teaching is true. I'm operating under the assumption that what the Word of faith movement teaching is simply misunderstood by the other segments of Christianity. I'm just wondering what the actual teaching ***is***, not whether it's true or heretical. That said, it is perfectly reasonable for someone to explain why the Word of Faith adherents believe this to be true. (In other words, inclusion of apologetic reasoning explaining the merit behind the teaching is allowed.)

> Pescetarianism is the practice of following a diet that includes fish > or other seafood, but not the flesh of other animals. ([Wikipedia](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pescetarianism)) Any insights would be really helpful, thanks. To specify, I'm asking from a Methodist point of view.

This question is addressed to people of trinitarian sects. If Jesus is part of a trinity, why are there so many examples of Him referring to Himself as something distinct from God? Some examples are Him on the cross saying "My God, my God, why have You forsaken Me?" and when He refers to God as greater than Himself when speaking to the twelve prior to being taken into custody. There are more that I've noticed but these two come to mind first. Furthermore, Jesus is repeatedly said to sit at the right hand of the Father. Doesn't the phrase "sit at the right hand" imply that the Son is not equal to the Father? I'm aware of there being counter-examples such as Him saying that He and the Father are one and of course, chapter one of John ("the Word was God"). Admitting these counter-examples support trinitarianism, how do Trinitarians explain the way Jesus speaks of God as if He is something distinct from God? Am I the only one who gets the impression that He speaks in this way? The way I see it right now is that Jesus is the Father's proxy. All authority was given to Him to execute the Father's will. He was created by the Father (I've heard some say that He was "begotten, not made", but He is referred to as Firstborn of Creation) as God's self-expression or image (Col. 1:15). In this sense, He is a functional equivalent to the Father, but in another sense, He is not essentially equivalent because He came from the Father. Is this the same way Trinitarians see it?

Genesis 4 discusses the descendants of Cain: >"Cain knew his wife, and she conceived and bore Enoch. When he built a city, he called the name of the city after the name of his son, Enoch. To Enoch was born Irad, and Irad fathered Mehujael, and Mehujael fathered Methushael, and Methushael fathered Lamech. And Lamech took two wives. The name of the one was Adah, and the name of the other Zillah. Adah bore Jabal; he was the **father of those who dwell in tents and have livestock**. His brother's name was Jubal; he was the **father of all those who play the lyre and pipe**. Zillah also bore Tubal-cain; he was **the forger of all instruments of bronze and iron**. The sister of Tubal-cain was Naamah." Genesis 4:17-22 Why are we given details about what the descendants of Cain did? Is there some special significance to these details?

In the story of Gideon (Judges 6-8), near the end it talks about Gideon building an ephod out of the gold earrings from the spoils of the battle against the Midianites. What is an ephod, and why did gideon build one. Is it significant?

I have been encountering more and more often news about charismatic churches, which I understand are part of the Pentecostal movement, and their connection with the supernatural and modern politics. Is there a good book about the history of these churches and the alleged miracles? On Amazon, for instance, there are several books, but they appear to have been self-published by these churches; thus, I won't rely on them for an objective evaluation of their work. Thank you

> 3 Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who has blessed us with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly places in Christ, 4 just as He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world, that we would be holy and blameless before Him. > > Ephesians 1:3-4 In the above verse the Apostle Paul writing to the believers at the church in Ephesus is declaring that God the Father chose 'us' i.e. the believers, before the foundation of the world. If that were the case all the believers whoever was and is and will be believing in Jesus and thus become believers only those people were chosen to become believers much before their creation. That's basically predestination of certain individuals to become believers. However, that effectively leaves out all those who are not chosen by God to go to hell. In other words, it is God who creates certain individuals meant to go to heaven and others to hell. If the above statements were to be true, then, God will be unjust and unloving. Furthermore, it will be unfair for God to command his people to preach the gospel to all creation. In the light of the above conundrum how to understand "God chose us before the foundation of the world?"

In all the different Bibles that I've looked at, except the New World Translation, they all declare with relative simplicity that Jesus Christ is God, mostly indirectly or by proxy but also directly. The NWT is so heavily edited that there are only a few ways in which it infers that Jesus is God. In Isaiah God says that he is the only Savior and beside him there is no Savior, but the New Testament, even the NWT, declares that Jesus Christ is the Savior. The NWT also states that all things were made FOR Jesus, making God a respecter of persons (partial), if Jesus isn't God. Jesus calls men and women sons and daughters. Jesus said He who sees him sees the One who sent him, John 12:45. Do they think all other linguists are in error?

Job 26:10 (KJV) says: >"He hath compassed the waters with bounds, until the day and night come to an end." This verse has also been translated as: >"He hath set a compass upon the face of the waters, until the day and night come to an end." (alternative rendering from some KJV printings) The phrase "compassed the waters with bounds" or “set a compass” seems to describe God establishing a limit or boundary over the waters. I’m trying to understand what this means. What is the Hebrew word translated as “bounds” or “limit” in this verse, and what are its possible interpretations?

The question is above. The term Sola Scriptura: Belief that Scripture is the final and only infallible authority for the Christian in all matters of faith and practice. While there are other authorities, they are always fallible and the must always be tested by and submit to the Scriptures. The Adherents are generally speaking Reformed Protestants/Evangelicals --- Please note, This is not directed at those who believe in **solo** scriptura: The Belief that Scripture is the sole basis and authority in the life of the Christian. Tradition is useless and misleading, and creeds and confessions are the result of man-made traditions.

How should I as a born again Christian begin to practice messianic Christianity?

Baptists not the only denomination where it is common for the male children of the pastor to go to seminary and enter the pastorate as well. It appears somewhat common not only for nationally known ministers but also ministers of local congregations to have some of their children follow in their footsteps. The question is for Baptists for scoping purposes. I could not find any actual statistics regarding how commonly this occurs and therefore ask only from the standpoint of personal observation. Given that the Bible indicates pastors and teachers are gifted by God and called into that position rather than it being handed down from father to son like regular vocations (Grandpa was a carpenter, dad was a carpenter, and I am a carpenter), how do Baptists reconcile the relative frequency of a pastor's son becoming a pastor himself?

The Anglican communion has split in two as far as I can tell, divided between anglican churches aligning themselves with the current organizations known as the Anglican Communion, and a new one, GAFCON. What practical implications does this split have on a local level?

Approaching this from a Catholic perspective, what are good signs that God is calling you to the vocation of priesthood, in other words, what must one look for to know whether you are called to the priesthood?

It is common to hear phrases such as "God exists outside of time" used to explain away anachronism or avoid addressing it altogether--for example, the idea that God has in the past progressed to become Who He Is today is sometimes dismissed as nonsensical because being "outside of time" is interpreted to preclude such contemplation. But if that were true, then why do Scriptures make reference to the acts of God within time, and ascribe causality at all to His acts and attributes? We might take license from such expressions so as to hand-wave further understanding of the true nature of God out of our minds. However, numerous passages in the Bible describe God and His acts in time, including His progression and development. The law of causality is never violated. For example, Luke 2:52 states, "And Jesus grew in wisdom and stature, and in favor with God and man." The central message of the Bible is that the Son of God came down from the presence of His Father, took upon Himself a tabernacle of flesh, and submitted to the Father in all things, including paying the price for sin so that we could be redeemed on conditions of repentance. For all we might say about being "outside of time", an assertion that God does not obey or is not consistent with laws of causation is clearly untenable. What Bible verse or verses suggest that God "exists outside of time", or gives a sensible definition to what that might more appropriately mean? I am not asking for philosophical interpretations, lawyerisms or hand-waving references to what so-called "mainstream Christianity" teaches. I am asking what the Bible says. Note that verses saying or suggesting that God has always existed or is eternal (which I accept) are not the same as saying He has never changed or is "outside of time". Such verses explicitly mention notions of time and causality as being valid and applicable to God as well as everything else.

I have heard the term "Lordship Salvation" several times now, including in an answer I read recently. Can anyone explain to me what this is? Is this the official position of any major churches? Is this a term only used by critics of the view? (Like "easy believism" or "cafeteria Christianity" - terms nobody would actually associate ***themselves*** with!)

I wonder if this practice was uniquely part of the 'Jesus movement' at the time or if it was just standard?

[Word of Faith](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Word_of_Faith) : > Word of Faith is a movement within charismatic Christianity which teaches that those who believe in Jesus' death and resurrection **have the right to physical health**, **that our words have power**, and that **true faith is more than simply mental knowledge, it is deeply held belief that cannot be shaken**. The movement was founded by the American Kenneth Hagin in the 1960s, and has its roots in the teachings of E. W. Kenyon. > **Teachings** > > Distinctive Word of Faith teachings include **physical, emotional, financial, relational, and spiritual healing** for those who keep their covenant with God. **The movement urges believers to speak what they desire, in agreement with the promises and provisions of the Bible, as an affirmation of God's plans and purposes. They believe this is what Jesus meant when he said in Mark 11:22–24 that believers shall have whatsoever they say and pray with faith**. The term word of faith itself is derived from Romans 10:8 which speaks of the word of faith that we preach. Many dismiss *Word of Faith* teachings as heretical (for instance, as discussed in [*Is the Word of Faith movement biblical?*](https://www.gotquestions.org/Word-Faith.html)) . Simultaneously, there is a belief among many that [Christianity is testable](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/97877/61679) , implying that Christianity encompasses promises that can be tested through sincere and faithful engagement. I'm interested in the views of those situated at the intersection of both groups. What Christian traditions consider Word of Faith teachings heretical but continue to uphold the belief in the empowering role of faith to activate God's promises? --- **Notes** 1. By activating/testing God's promises, I'm specifically referring to the belief in promises that can be tested *on this side of the grave*. Therefore, promises that only become actualized *on the other side of the grave*, such as resurrection to eternal life, for the purposes of this question, do not count. 2. My use of the word *activate* has been criticized as inappropriate in the comments section. My observation in response is that my use of this word in the context of God's promises is not novel. With a quick search one can easily find several examples of churches/ministries that have used it in this way. For instance: - [GOD’S PROMISES AREN’T AUTOMATED, THEY’RE ACTIVATED](https://www.redeemercoast.church/blog/2021/1/22/gods-promises-arent-automated-theyre-activated) - [3 Keys to Activating God’s Promises in Your Life](https://faithisland.org/bible/3-keys-to-activating-gods-promises-in-your-life/) - [Activating the Promises of God: Unlock the Power of the Bible & Empower Your Life](https://www.amazon.com/Activating-Promises-God-Unlock-Empower-ebook/dp/B0CR31XPYS/) - *"Perhaps they did not believe that such a simple action could **trigger the promised healing**. Or perhaps they willfully hardened their hearts and rejected the counsel of God’s prophet."* *"The principle of **activating** blessings that flow from God is eternal.* [...] *In fact, it can be seen in heaven because small acts of faith are required to **ignite God’s promises**."* *"I invite you to faithfully **activate heavenly power to receive specific blessings from God**. Exercise the faith to strike the match and light the fire. Supply the needed oxygen while you patiently wait on the Lord. With these invitations, I pray that the Holy Ghost will guide and direct you so that you, like the faithful person described in Proverbs, will “abound with blessings.” I testify that your Heavenly Father and His Beloved Son, Jesus Christ, live, are concerned with your welfare, and delight to bless you, in the name of Jesus Christ, amen."* (source: [Abound with Blessings](https://www.churchofjesuschrist.org/study/general-conference/2019/04/41renlund?lang=eng)) What I'm having a hard time verifying is whether any of these ministries denounce *Word of Faith* teachings as heretical, or if they are tacitly endorsing them.

I encountered an opinion that the Old Covenant is still valid and that Israel is still the Chosen Nation of God. I haven't checked the accuracy of the source, but I read on the Internet that St. John Paul II said that "God has never revoked the Old Covenant". Also, St. Paul wrote in Romans 11 a difficult passage about the Jews, particularly in Romans 11:29 : > "For the gifts and the call of God are irrevocable." (RSV). On the other hand, in my language, during the Liturgy of Good Friday, something like "Jews that used to be Chosen Nation in past" is said. (Some say that's a wrong translation; I didn't check the Latin original). Also, the parable of the vineyard in Matthew 21 says: >"Therefore I tell you, the kingdom of God will be taken away from you and given to a nation producing the fruits of it." (v. 43). This seems to state that the Church replaced Israel as a Chosen People. So, what is the Catholic solution to this seeming contradiction?