I heard something along the lines of you should treat your daughters better than your sons. Is this true or do we treat both children equally?

Asalaamu Alaykum WARAhmATULLAAHI wabarakaatuhu 1. If I ask this question it doesn't mean that I left islam right (btw I'm 12) Ok so why does Allah say Arijaalu Kawaamuna alnisaa men are superior to women When islam is all about equality

Is there any verse in Quran that suggests all humans are made equal (equal in the sense of what they are given in the world, the hardships would face and other things combined making each person equal)? For example, one of the person is given high wealth but has some other thing less (like he has less good relationships) like he is being tested. There is another person who has less wealth but has great relationships and is also being tested. Together if you see both they both are given equal in life.

Quran is specific about the kind of rewards faithful men would get in paradise. However, when I read the Quran I haven't found any clarity about what the faithful women would get in paradise.

If the Quran states that believers are equal, whether men or women, why does only a woman need a wali to get married?

Are blacks and whites equal? Are women and men equal? By equal I’d say in terms of opportunity for reward or equal in terms of the mercy and love God has for them. I always had the idea that in Islam specifically men are superior to women and that Muslims are superior to other religions or that Arabs generally have it better than others. Are there any Quranic verses or anything that suggest otherwise for each of these categories?

The wife has to obey her husband and he has to provide for her and treat her with kindness. However is the wife allowed to reject sex if she was not in the mood or for any other reason? It is her body and she is the one that will get pregnant and will have to got through the struggles and pain of labour. Is his pleasure more important than anything else?

Does Allah favor men over women, or does he love us all equally? I have read this: https://www.uua.org/re/tapestry/youth/bridges/workshop14/185708.shtml but I'm not sure as to if it is true?

I am not a Muslim, but I am very interested in it. I hope by getting an answer to this question I will take a step closer to maybe accepting Islam. I understand that Allah gives everyone a chance to live out our lives on earth to test us, even though he knows full well how everyone will do. This is similar to how a legal system allows a convicted criminal to make an appeal in his defense even though everything may be stacked against. I.e. all the evidence. In the day of judgment Allah will use our lives as evidence against us to prove if we did good or bad. To be just Allah allowed us all to live our lives so Allah doesn't have to say to us on the day of judgement "I knew what you would've done if i gave you a life so you go to hell or heaven,etc." Instead Allah can say "you had your chance and you failed to prove yourself etc." So suppose we have two people both born in say a Christian family and let's say one is very devout to his religion and the other is more casual and doesn't care much, he just happened to have Christian parents. Like your typical teen they go through school not to concerned yet about religion and reach say the age of 20. Still very young and focused on their sorting their future lives not too serious about religion; as most people are in the west at this age. Now suppose the less religious person suddenly dies due to an accident, very probable and has occurred to many people in the world. The devout religious person continues his life and eventually converts to Islam at say 35, which he practices until death. The question is therefore, is it unfair that the first person who died early when he was still developing and didn't get a chance to reach full maturity or reach a standard livelihood to be able to pursue say religion? Even if would have remained say a disbeliever till death, wasn't letting him live on earth their to prove he would have died a disbeliever and to avoid having to say "I knew you would have lived to die a disbeliever anyway". The first person who died can now argue that if I had lived to the same age as person 2 I might have become a Muslim. If Allah was simply going to say to him " I knew you would have lived to die a disbeliever anyway" than why did Allah give him a life on in the first place. I understand that Allah has said in the Quran that everyone at some point their lives will be introduced or exposed to Islam. But I feel many young people who do are so caught up with problems in their lives and future that they may miss the opportunity to take it seriously. Especially as in this example they may die very young, ignorant of religion having lived a life focused on worldly pleasure. Many Muslim convert's are like this early on and in later life realise they should submit to god and may come across Islam in their search. I'm not attacking islam I just want this issue cleared up and would appreciate a kind response from someone who might have the answer. Thank You

Suppose a poor beggar who lives on streets and suffers from hunger everyday but gets by struggling everyday. He is also a Muslim, but I want to know if he is exempt from offering Salat due to his struggle. i.e. hunger, thirst, illnesses, mental stress and etc. **If he is exempt from missing Salat why?** If he is not exempt, how is it fair when you consider that in the hereafter he will after endure even more suffering to atone for missed Salat. Whereas a well off Muslim who can fulfill his obligatory duties will possibly have less suffering in this world and atone for less in the hereafter. Therefore, the likely conclusion is that the poor beggar Muslims will be the losers in this life and the hereafter; in comparison to the well off Muslims. **How is this fair?** **Please can someone offer an answer to this using authentic sources as reference.** *Moderators please do not delete the comments in this question (As you've done in my previous question) or for any answers, as we are simply discussing the topic in more detail and addressing any ambiguities in their answers/ responses* Thank You

According to Islamqa men and women are not equal. So are men and women equal or not? What I mean is, are men inherently better then women in terms of piety, just for them being men? If there's any problem in my question please inform me. Thanks!

In Islam the men (husbands) are allowed to hit their wife's if they do something which is against Islam. I understand that this does not mean that they can hit hard and it is just a light hit with the edge of a scarf and it is for discipline. However, my question is that why have women not been told they can hit their husband's if they do something wrong? Why have only men been given this right?

Women are told to cover their bodies properly with a loose and thick outer garment (hijab). However men are only told to cover a section of their body. I understand that one should guard their private parts and so cover them however, women also have to cover their hair, neck, arms and legs where as men do not have to cover these parts. Both men and women have the tendency to look at the opposite gender, not just men. A man only had to cover from the navel to the knee. The rest of his body can be left bare. Women have to cover because men feel attracted to women by just looking at them. But this goes both ways as women can also be attracted to men by just looking. Also although it is haram to be gay, we cannot deny that there is a rise in gay men and so shouldn't men too cover themselves as some men feel attracted towards them too?