If we believe and confess, why do we need Jesus to intercede for us? >Therefore he is able to save completely those who come to God through him, because he always lives to intercede for them. - Heb.7:25 > If you declare with your mouth, “Jesus is Lord,” and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved. - Rom.10:9 Heb.7:25 sounds as if we need for Jesus to intercede for us repeatedly, in order for us to be saved completely/to the uttermost. I am looking for answers from persons who believe that Rom.10:9 is true. If I get different answers from those who interpret Rom.10:9 differently, that is fine. If a person is saved (by your definition), why does the person need for Jesus to intercede for them repeatedly?

Protestants reject the Catholic and Orthodox practice of asking deceased saints to pray for them, and I think there are two main reasons why they reject it: it is communicating with the dead, and it is dishonouring to Jesus. The first has been dealt with in many other questions, but I'd like to focus on the second one to see how valid an argument it is. So the second major reasons why protestants don't ask the deceased to pray for them is that they believe they need no other mediator than Jesus. For protestants, asking anyone other than Jesus to intercede with God for them is dishonouring to Jesus! But Protestant Christians have no hesitation at all in asking *living* Christians to pray for them. Why does the argument against dead Christians not apply to living Christians? If you ask your Christian brother or sister to pray for you, why is that not seeking another mediator than Jesus? The Bible clearly instructs us to pray for others, and it frequently show that early Christians asked other Christians to pray for them (ex. in Paul's letters), but does it ever instruct us to ask others to pray for us?

What happens to the fruits of the Mass applied to a particular soul who is no longer in purgatory?

According to the New Testament of the Holy Bible, what is the interpretation of the phrase "may his/her soul rest in peace. RIP"?

Certain Christian denominations, notably Catholicism and Orthodoxy, hold the belief that living Christians can pray to deceased saints in order to request their supportive intercessory prayer. Is there any evidence in the New Testament that this was a common practice among Early Church disciples? Can we find examples of this practice in the book of Acts, or any other New Testament book for that matter? If we can't find such Early Church examples, are there any instances of this practice in the whole Bible at all?

Point 6 in the Our Sunday Visitor Article ["9 truths about purgatory"](https://www.osvnews.com/2013/09/18/9-truths-about-purgatory/) is that souls in purgatory can intercede for us: > The souls in purgatory can’t do anything for themselves, but the Church has long believed that they can do something for us: They can pray for us, helping obtain for us the graces we need to follow Christ more perfectly. Two other questions related to their consciousness while in purgatory, given their status as [disembodied souls](https://cct.biola.edu/thomas-aquinas-human-nature-soul-afterlife/) : 1. Whether they can hear our petition for them to intercede for us, or whether the initiative to intercede for us can only come from them? 2. Whether they retain the memory of their loved ones on earth so they can intercede for us? **What is the Catholic teaching on this: from Scripture, Magisterium, and/or respected saints & theologians?**

Some modern Jews claim that seeking the prayers and intercession of Rachel is an ancient tradition. See https://jwa.org/encyclopedia/article/rachel-bible >More than a hundred years after the exile of the North, Jeremiah had a vision of Rachel still mourning, still grieving for her lost children. Moreover, he realized that her mourning served as an effective intercession, for God promised to reward her efforts and return her children (Jer 31:15–21). After the biblical period, “Mother Rachel” continued to be celebrated as a powerful intercessor for the people of Israel. See also https://www.rashbi.org/holysites-kever-rachel >According to the Jewish tradition, the matriarch Rachel has always cried for her people whenever the Jewish people needed her. Jacob reportedly buried Rachel in Bethlehem, instead of in the Tomb of Patriarchs in Hebron because he foresaw that his descendants would need her prayers en route to exile in Babylonia. Is this practice admonished anywhere in the New Testament?

In True Devotion to Mary , a book written in 1843 by Saint Louis de Montfort, is found the following quote: > ... in heaven and on earth everything, even to God Himself, is subject > to the Blessed Virgin, they mean to say that the authority which God > has been well pleased to give her is so great, that it seems as if she > has the same power as God, and that her prayers and petitions are so > powerful with God, that they always pass for commandments with His > Majesty, who never resists the prayer of His dear Mother, because she > is always humble and conformed to His Will. > > True Devotion to Mary It seems (to my protestant ears) that such startling statements should have quite obvious and direct foundation in Scripture. For instance, the claim that Jesus is the only access to God's salvation can be directly linked to Acts 4:12 . What is the biblical basis for: 1a) God giving such an authority to Mary that she "seems" to have the same power as God and, 1b) that her prayers are so powerful that they *always pass for commandments* with Him?

Ezekiel 22:29-31 (ESV): > 29 The people of the land have practiced extortion and committed robbery. They have oppressed the poor and needy, and have extorted from the sojourner without justice. 30 **And I sought for a man among them who should build up the wall and stand in the breach before me for the land, that I should not destroy it, but I found none**. 31 Therefore I have poured out my indignation upon them. I have consumed them with the fire of my wrath. I have returned their way upon their heads, declares the Lord God.” Why did God seek for someone to intercede for the land? Why is intercessory prayer so important to God? Why does God condition his divine intervention and mercy on human intercession (or lack thereof)? I'm interested in theological explanations, with no preference for any particular denomination or school of thought, although citations of reputable sources would be a plus and certainly appreciated.

In informal conversations with cessationists, I've heard claims to the effect that the gift of healing is fundamentally different from just praying for a sick person to get healed. That someone with the gift of healing should be able to just lay their hands on a sick person and pretty much get them healed instantly, almost at will, like Jesus and the Apostles did in many occasions, whereas praying for someone to get healed follows a different approach and could possibly take hours, days, months of intercessory prayer, and if the person does get healed it doesn't mean that you have the gift of healing *per se* -- it just means that God answered your prayer, just like He would anyone else's, if it is His will to do so. Are there any Christian groups or denominations that make a distinction between the gift of healing and just praying for the sick to get healed? What role does their interpretation of [Mark 16:17-18](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Mark+16%3A17-18&version=ESV) play in this distinction?

*The problem I am submitting to you arises not about prayer in general but only about that kind of prayer which consists of request or petition.... I have no answer to my problem, though I have taken it to about every Christian I know...* ~ C.S lewis

In *Petitionary Prayer: A Problem Without An Answer* (Clive Staples Lewis; Christian Reflections. Grand Rapids, MI: Eerdmans Publishing, 1967 pp. 142–151), Lewis observes that that there are two types of prayer, one which he calls the "A Pattern" and the other the "B Pattern". The crux of the problem is thus: the first pattern is given in the Lord's Prayer, > 9“This, then, is how you should pray: > > “‘Our Father in heaven, > hallowed be your name. > 10Your kingdom come, > your will be done > on earth as it is in heaven.'" > > ~ Matthew VI (all quotations from the NIV) and in the agony of Gethsemane, > 42“Father, if you are willing, take this cup from me; > yet not my will, but yours be done.” > > ~ Luke XXII while the second pattern is seemingly at odds with the first, as in such examples as > 13 "...I will do whatever you ask in my name, so that the Father may be glorified in the Son. > 14 You may ask me for anything in my name, and I will do it." > > ~ John XIV and > 7"Ask and it will be given to you; > seek and you will find; > knock and the door will be opened to you." > > ~ Matt VII and > 23"...my Father will give you whatever you ask in my name. > 24...Ask and you will receive, and your joy will be complete." > > ~ John XVI How are we to reconcile these two seemingly diametrically opposed patterns of prayer? On the one hand we are to trust our Lord and Savior to lead and guide us in what He knows is best. This, of course, sounds perfectly reasonable. But at the same time we are told without qualification (except in a few cases where truly believing is requisite) that what we ask for will be granted. I share Mr. Lewis' desire to know the truth, a workable and satisfactory solution to the problem, asking my friends, pastors, counselors, and some (ostensibly) well-studied men and women, to provide some kind of special, as of yet undisclosed insight. But as yet I am not satisfied. The problem remains unanswered in my experience, as apparently was C.S. Lewis'. I have asked well-meaning, though not highly-sophisticated people, to try to provide answers. Here is an example of the typical response: > When Jesus instructed his disciples on how they should pray, he indicated that there was a positive causal role in prayer regarding the coming of the Kingdom. One aspect of the kingdom is the presence of the King, so Jesus could say that the kingdom of God is at hand! Another is the acceptance of kingly leadership and fealty (loyalty). This is imperfectly implemented at best. There is a pitched battle being waged over the seating of the king. Satan has usurped the throne and doesn't want to forsake it. The king of the present age is being defeated by saints who will pick up their crosses daily and follow Jesus and who will pray as led by the Holy Spirit - macro prayers for God's will to be done on earth as it is in heaven and micro prayers of petition for our individual needs (prayers that stimulate and deepen our individual relationships with God) and prayers of intercession as the Holy Spirit opens our eyes to the needs of others and gives us His heart of compassion. This just doesn't seem to do justice to the question. It doesn't really address the issue at all. All this letter is saying, at bottom, is that we are to do both. I may be missing the point, but to me this letter just doesn't make for a good case. I have been extremely frustrated over this issue, and hope that there are insights that have been gained over the many years since Mr. Lewis' question was first posed. In the meantime, although I draw closer to God in my relations to Him, e.g. in talking to Him about my life, my hopes, and my many other daily considerations, I have not been able to intercede. In closing his paper, Lewis asks (reasonably), "How am I to pray this very night?", and many are the nights I have hit my pillow with the same thought. **Do any Christian denominations or *prominent* Christian thinkers address the apparent paradox of petitioning God, who apparently promises to answer all prayers, while also yielding to His will?** For more information, please see C.S. Lewis and Petitionary Prayer (De Mentor), an overview of Lewis' views of prayer in general, and C.S. Lewis on Prayer (Dr. Art Lindsley), a paper from a biographical viewpoint.

Romans 8:26-27 (ESV): > 26 Likewise the Spirit helps us in our weakness. For we do not know what to pray for as we ought, **but the Spirit himself intercedes for us with groanings too deep for words**. 27 And he who searches hearts knows what is **the mind of the Spirit**, because **the Spirit intercedes for the saints** according to the will of God. This is one of the most commonly cited passages as evidence ***for*** the personhood of the Holy Spirit (e.g. as in [this answer](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/a/44245/50422)) , probably because of the following reasons: - The Holy Spirit is said to be able to intercede (i.e. pray) for the saints. - And not just intercede, but intercede with groanings too deep for words (indicative of emotions?) - Moreover, the Holy Spirit is explicitly said to have a mind (*the mind of the Spirit*, v27). In short, the passage appears to be saying that the Holy Spirit has (1) a mind, (2) emotions and (3) the ability to pray/intercede. **Question**: How do deniers of the personhood of the Holy Spirit interpret Romans 8:26-27 and make sense of all this?

The bible tells us both that Jesus has been given all authority but he also is ever making intercession for us with God the Father. Has there ever been any theological explanation by anyone on why Christ with all authority needs to make intercession if the Father has already entrusted him with all authority? **Hebrews 7:25** Consequently, he is able to save to the uttermost those who draw near to God through him, since he always lives to make intercession for them. **Romans 8:34** Who is to condemn? Christ Jesus is the one who died—more than that, who was raised—who is at the right hand of God, who indeed is interceding for us **Matthew 28:18** And Jesus came up and spoke to them, saying, “All authority has been given to Me in heaven and on earth. **Colossians 2:10** and in Him you have been made complete, and He is the head over all rule and authority; **1 Peter 3:22** who is at the right hand of God, having gone into heaven, after angels and authorities and powers had been subjected to Him. To clarify (from discussion in comments below): I am interested in this topic specifically, the relationship of Christ's authority with Christ's making intercession. This is a Jesus Christ specific topic and understanding the dynamic of his authority and his role as intercessor including the meanings of those words and roles in relationship to each other.

Venezuelan government/regime is destroying the country through corruption, drugtraffiking to the USA and Europe, murder, kleptocracy, unjustified imprisonments. The government palace is full of symbols and objects of demon worship and "santero" altars. They are starving the population of the country without water, electricity, gasoline, security, health care, justice, etc. Venezuela seems to be the pre-apocalyptic laboratory! Should I consider them as the authorities imposed by God, in order to pray for them and not against them? How should I pray?

Where does the belief come from? Why is her intercession believed to be necessary? Please provide Biblical evidence for the belief as well as Traditional sources.

I understand that there are many different reasons to pray: confessing your sins, thanking God for daily provisions. However, many people pray for intercession and believe in the possibility that God will intervene on their behalf. There are also examples of this in the Bible. Is there any evidence to suggest that God intervenes on our behalf (in the modern world). There is plenty of anecdotal evidence, but are there any studies demonstrating proof of the effectiveness of intercessory prayer? If God intervenes on our behalf surely this can easily be proved, reproducible, and should be statistically greater than chance. If there is no evidence to suggest this type of prayer is effective, is there any purpose for praying for intercession?

I took several holy cards to view and touch relics of the saints. Now do I keep the relic and pray for someone or give it to the person so that he/she can pray for healing?

Some Christian doctrine suggests that our work as Christ's servants does not end with our physical passing from this life; that we can continue to pray for those in need in heaven. Catholicism comes to mind but some Protestant denominations seem to leave wiggle room with their teaching on the communion of saints as well. I sense truth in this but could find no direct support in the bible. I do see support for this in the contested book of the Apocrypha and the practices of the Jewish Chasidic and Chareidi sects. I am not asking if there is biblical authority to support the practice of the living praying to dead saints for intercession. That one has been thoroughly probed. Rather, my question is if there is biblical authority to support the proposition that when we are in heaven, in the presence of God, we can pray for the living. In searching this site, I found the following pertinent references. I would also ask for comment on how these references relate to the question posed. Then the LORD said to me, "Though Moses and Samuel stood before me, yet my heart would not turn toward this people. Send them out of my sight, and let them go! (Jer. 15:1) And so, when you and your daughter-in-law Sarah prayed, I brought a reminder of your prayer before the Holy One; and when you buried the dead, I was likewise present with you. (Tobit 12:12) And when he had taken the scroll, the four living creatures and the twenty-four elders fell down before the Lamb, each holding a harp, and with golden bowls full of incense, which are the prayers of the saints; (Rev. 5:8)

What is the purpose of praying for the dead according to Catholicism?

Why should Catholics ask the Saints and Mother Mary to take our prayers to God for us? How does the Catholic church know they can canonize "Saints"? How do we know the angels and saints will intercede our prayers for us, as to get Gods priority attention. Is asking for intercession better than just praying directly to God?