When I read Rev 20:11-15 to answer [another question](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/a/107604/10672) an idea occurs to me. Maybe there are two books at play in the Great White Throne Judgment, the book of life (criteria for salvation) and what appears to be the "books of works" (title not given), noting the phrase "another book" and the plural form of "books" in v. 12. Here's the CSB translation: > 11 Then I saw a great white throne and one seated on it. Earth and heaven fled from his presence, and no place was found for them. 12 I also saw the dead, the great and the small, standing before the throne, and **books were opened**. **Another book was opened, which is the book of life**, and the dead were judged according to **their works by what was written in the books**. 13 Then the sea gave up the dead that were in it, and death and Hades gave up the dead that were in them; each one was judged according to their works. 14 Death and Hades were thrown into the lake of fire. This is the second death, the lake of fire. 15 And anyone whose name was not found written in the book of life was thrown into the lake of fire. Is it possible that the "book of life" is the criteria of inclusion for going to heaven while the "book of works" (for lack of a better name) is for giving rewards for the "treasures in heaven" (Matt 6:19-21) that one has accumulated while on earth, namely good works out of faith? That the "book of works" contain everything that God sees we do in secret (Matt 6:4) and the unrewarded suffering we do for Christ (Matt 5:10-12)? One is also reminded about Paul talking about how the works of God's servants (who labor in the field of harvest) will be tested by fire (1 Cor 3:10-15). Or is my speculation in the preceding paragraph unwarranted because I'm mixing un-relatable concept of "works" from 3 completely different *genres* (a gospel, an epistle, and an apocalypse)? Am I guilty of reading Matthean / Pauline concepts into Revelation or am I to be applauded for doing ["inductive Bible study"](https://biblestudy.tips/inductive-bible-study/) ? My question: **Compare and contrast Reformed and Catholics view on the role of both books mentioned in the Great White Throne Judgment, especially with regards to "merit" and "reward".** What I'm trying to ascertain: - **For Reformed**: what is the use of the *other* books since it appears that what matters is only whether the names are found in the "book of life"? - **For Catholics**: does the church use the *other* books in connection with the doctrine of good works, **EITHER** with regards to the treasury of merit **OR** with regards to justification by faith and works? **OR BOTH?** *Note*: - For the sake of answerability, I only ask to contrast the Reformed position and the Catholic position as a minimal scoping, although additional position(s) are welcome as a bonus. - To defend that this Q is not opinion-based, I require citations from published Reformed and Catholic theologians.

I know the word "merit" will send up red flags for Protestants, but what I mean has nothing to do with justification. By supererogatory merit I mean doing something not required, and doing it for the purpose of earning a reward (not of being justified). The reason I ask the question is because normally I've read Matt 5:38-48 as a set of disjointed verses (reading it in the KJV which is always printed verse-by-verse). But recently having read it in a few modern translations that arrange the verses in paragraphs, I noticed something interesting. The verses on turning to the other cheek, giving your coat to anyone who sues for your shirt, loving your enemies, all seem to be connected to verse 46 "For if you love those who love you, what reward do you have?" So its all about trying to earn a reward. "And if you greet only your brothers, what more are you doing than others?" Ah, and its about doing more than others! This calls in question the traditional interpretation that its a sin to defend yourself, to defend yourself in a lawsuit, to hate your enemy, and presents these things as extras, something above and beyond for those who want to do more than others and earn a special reward. So my question is basically, what do you think? Is there any basis to this interpretation or do you think its entirely wrong?

What happens to the fruits of the Mass applied to a particular soul who is no longer in purgatory?

From the preface by the publisher to Rev. Schouppe's *Purgatory Explained by the Lives and Legends of the Saints* : > Our suffrages or offerings for the dead are more agreeable to God than our prayers and good works for the living, for the Poor Souls are closer to God, stand in greater need and cannot help themselves. Is this true? I could not find a quote to back it up in the book.

### What is "offering it up" As a Protestant, the Catholic practice of "offering it up" is new to me, although once I am acquainted with it, it seems very Biblical; see - [this article](https://catholicstrength.com/tag/offering-up-our-sufferings-for-others/) which interprets the practice in light of sharing in Christ's suffering in union with Him (*cf* Rom 8:17, Phil 2:17-18, Col 1:24, and 2 Cor 4:8-12) - Paul's advice to Timothy to "share in [Paul's] suffering [in Christ]" (*cf* 2 Tim 2:3) Other articles explaining "offering it up": - 2017 [*Catholic Digest* article](https://www.catholicdigest.com/amp/from-the-magazine/ask-father/what-does-it-really-mean-to-offer-it-up/) by Fr. Thomas V. Berg, Ph.D. - 2019 [*Word on Fire* article](https://www.wordonfire.org/articles/fellows/lets-get-reacquainted-with-the-idea-of-offering-it-up/) by Benedictine Oblate Elizabeth Scalia ### Offering it up *vs.* other suffering and works of love My question has to do with comparing "offering it up" (#4) to other 5 practices that can arguably produce merit: 1. "active" (visible) meritorious works of love ([congruous, not condign merit](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Merit_(Christianity)#Nature_of_merit) , done in the state of grace). Examples: [corporal works of mercy](https://www.usccb.org/beliefs-and-teachings/how-we-teach/new-evangelization/jubilee-of-mercy/the-corporal-works-of-mercy) , [spiritual works of mercy](https://www.usccb.org/beliefs-and-teachings/how-we-teach/new-evangelization/jubilee-of-mercy/the-spiritual-works-of-mercy) , etc. 1. "invisible" works of love we do in private. Examples: reward for praying in private *cf* Matt 6:5-6, reward for invisible fasting *cf* Matt 6:16-18, [mass intentions](https://www.catholiccompany.com/magazine/how-to-offer-up-your-intentions-at-mass-6222) , novenas, etc. 1. following evangelical counsels producing supererogatory merit (see Routledge entry on [Supererogation](https://www.rep.routledge.com/articles/thematic/supererogation/v-1/sections/historical-antecedents)) 1. enduring unexpected hardship in life that we can designate ("offering it up") as [redemptive suffering for the spiritual benefit of others](https://catholicstrength.com/tag/offering-up-our-sufferings-for-others/) 1. penance for one's own satisfaction of temporal punishment, either prescribed by a priest or self-imposed 1. suffering because of persecution by others for the sake of Christ ### Is "Offering it up" a mere penance or can it also add to the treasury of merit? On the surface, #1, #2, and #3 are "positive" in character (in that there are **no effects of sin** factor into the acts), while - in #4 our suffering is through ***no fault of our own*** (like Job's), but maybe God's way to refine our character - in #5 it's clearly because of ***our*** sins - in #6 it is because ***other*** people's sins / provocations but what we do (i.e. not denying Christ at the risk of dying, or not ashamed of being a Christian in spite of jeers) will clearly be rewarded per Jesus's own promise in Matt 5:11-12. Per St. Cyprian (*c*. AD 250), Jesus's reward for dying for Him as martyrs clearly adds to the treasury of merit which apostates (*lapsi*) can then apply toward their penance. **My related questions**: 1. Does "offering it up" (#4) produces merit that is counted to the treasury of merit similar in #6 or should it be counted only as an unexpected opportunity to do penance for the sufferer's own temporal purification similar in #5? 1. But "offering it up" in its character of *redemptive suffering* seems to be heavily linked with the Catholic understanding of *communion of saints* where we help others in the purification process. So if our suffering in #5 can be "offered up" that God then redistributes to helping others, how does it compare with the **merit** rewarded by God as in #1, #2, and #3 ? An answer that addresses how each of the 6 cases relate to the treasury of merit would be appreciated.

Catholic Church teaches that we will be rewarded differently in heaven based on our merit (i.e. based on the amount of good deeds that we have freely done during our earthy life; for example, see this article from [International Catholic University](http://icucourses.com/pages/016-12-merit-god-works-with-us)) . My question is, what exactly is this "heavenly reward"? I have heard some saying that the heavenly reward is our heavenly capacity for love (with greater the reward implies having a greater heavenly capacity for love), but I cannot really find a source of this claim. What exactly will our "heavenly reward" be? Please answer according to Catholic understandings.

Here is what I think I understand: A Catholic believes in something called **penance** that is understood as a sacrament by which forgiveness of sins (committed after baptism) is granted through the priest's ‘absolution’ to those with: a) true sorrow b) confess their sins and c) promise to **satisfy** for the confessed sin **The satisfactions are basically works necessary to ensure the temporal punishments due to sin are ‘satisfied’.** The idea is that although the ‘absolution’ remits both the guilt and the eternal punishment of mortal sins, some indebtedness to justice that demands temporal punishment can be cancelled through the ‘satisfaction’ (or later on in purgatory). **On the subject of purgatory, one man's work with intrinsic satisfactory qualities may actually be transferred to another in order to remove some (or all?) of the punishments of those believers in purgatory.** Those in purgatory are those who did not make satisfaction for their own venial sins before dying – thus having to be in purgatory. >Owing to the peculiar relation between and material identity of merit and satisfaction in the present economy of salvation, a twofold value must in general be distinguished in every good work: the meritorious and the satisfactory value. But each preserves its distinctive character, theoretically by the difference in concepts, and practically in this, that the value of merit as such, consisting in the increase of grace and of heavenly glory, is purely personal and is not applicable to others, **while the satisfactory value may be detached from the meriting agent and applied to others. The possibility of this transfer rests on the fact that the residual punishments for sin are in the nature of a debt, which may be legitimately paid to the creditor and thereby cancelled not only by the debtor himself but also by a friend of the debtor. This consideration is important for the proper understanding of the usefulness of suffrages for the souls in purgatory** (cf. Council of Trent, Sess. XXV, Decret. de purgat., in Denzinger, n. 983). (Catholic Encyclopedia – Merit ) Here is my question: 'I understand that a Catholic through meritorious works that have satisfactory power in them, can transfer those satisfactions as a kind of spiritual wealth to those in purgatory. However, can these ‘credits’ if I may use the word, be sent to others who are still alive as well?' More specifically: **'If I was Catholic and a dear relative I know commits venial sins and needs to do some satisfaction to avoid temporal punishment, can I do good meritorious/satisfactory works for them and thereby remove their temporal punishments for them? Or is the transfer of satisfaction only for those believers who are suffering temporal punishments in purgatory?**

> The Catholic Church teaches that saints in Heaven can no longer merit. So I was wondering **if their merits run out at some point and how that works out for them.** Related to this question, I want to know **if the saints in Heaven are elevated to higher levels of intercession(power and frequency) based on how often or how fervently they are invoked to help the saints on Earth,** this would be some kind of alternative to the system of merits when their merits would theoretically run out if they do.

### About Treasury of Merit The teaching of the [treasury of merit](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Treasury_of_merit) (*GotQuestions* article [here](https://www.gotquestions.org/treasury-of-merit.html)) in connection to the communion of saints and indulgences is explained in CCC 1476-1477 and is based on the Catholic interpretation of Matt 6:19-20, 1 Cor 12:26, and Col 1:24. Two apologetics article, [Dr. Taylor Marshall's article](https://taylormarshall.com/2006/06/indulgences-and-treasury-of-merit.html) and [Bryan Cross's article](https://www.calledtocommunion.com/2011/01/indulgences-the-treasury-of-merit-and-the-communion-of-saints/) (from his *Called to Communion* website), address frequent misunderstanding by Protestants. But neither articles, nor the CCC, nor the Catholic Encyclopedia articles on [Indulgences](https://www.newadvent.org/cathen/07783a.htm) and [Merit](https://www.newadvent.org/cathen/10202b.htm) mention the patristic source of the teaching on **how the saints' merits are added to a treasury** from which the merit becomes available to be applied to another believer **instead of simply a reward** for themselves (i.e. the saints who obtained the merit through their good work on earth). ### Insufficient pointers 1. There is only one oblique reference to St. Cyprian's defending the *lapsi* against the Novatians: > St. Cyprian, therefore, believed that the merits of the martyrs could be applied to less worthy Christians by way of vicarious satisfaction, and that such satisfaction was acceptable in the eyes of God as well as of the Church. > > (*Source*: [Epistle 13](https://www.newadvent.org/fathers/050613.htm) of St. Cyprian of Carthage, AD 250, referred to in the *Indulgences* encyclopedia article) which is not that convincing because of lack of general application (i.e. non-martyr saints and non-*lapsi* situations). 2. I find that Eastern Orthodox also has a concept of Treasury of Merits **BUT** only God has the power to distribute the gifts. The justification for this teaching is from **liturgical text** (see 2018 blog article from the *Orthodox West Journal* website: [Regarding the Merits of the Saints](https://journal.orthodoxwestblogs.com/2018/02/09/regarding-the-merits-of-the-saints/)) . ### My question **Where can I see the earliest clear statement from the early church period, that the saints' merit is available to be applied to another?** The answer can also include: - The first Church Fathers who interpret Matt 6:19-20, 1 Cor 12:26, and Col 1:24 along the lines of modern Catholic teaching of the treasury of merit. - If the Catholic church also bases this teaching from early church liturgy, please provide the quote **linking** the liturgical text to a church council or a church father teaching.

Does Our Lady purify our intention s? For example, if one says a *Hail Mary* with mixed intentions (e.g., with the intention to please himself, though also with a virtual intention to please God), does Our Lady purify that prayer such that from God's perspective there are no self-seeking (impure) intentions in it? A pure intention is (Fr. Hardon, S.J., *Catholic Dictionary*): >The perfection of one's motive inspiring human action. An act is more or less pure depending on the degree of selfless love of God with which it is performed.

From [wels.net](https://wels.net/faq/what-does-for-jesus-sake-mean/) (emphasis mine): >“For Jesus’ sake” means that we are coming to God in prayer, not pleading our own merits, but (“on account of”) Jesus’ merits... When we end our prayers with “for Jesus’ sake,” we are acknowledging that Jesus is the one who has bridged the gap between a holy God and sinners. “For Jesus’ sake” has the idea of asking that our prayers be heard and answered, **not because of who we are but because of who Jesus is**. And of course whether or not we use that expression, that thought is foundational to all our prayers. From [Truth Magazine](http://www.truthmagazine.com/archives/volume10/TM010059.html) (emphasis mine): >FOR CHRIST'S SAKE hath forgiven you" (Eph. 4:3-2). The Holy Spirit said God hath forgiven us "for Christ's sake." This being true, why should it be wrong for us to use the phrase "for Christ's sake" in our prayers? Certainly, certainly, ask the prayer in the name of Christ (Rom. 1:8, Col. 3:17). But in view of Ephesians 4:32 may we not use the words "for Christ's sake?" Does someone say, brother Plum it is not for Christ's sake we pray, it is for "our sake," "my sake." I understand Christ was perfect and we are not, and personally I do not feel worthy to say to my God grant my petitions "for my sake," do you? I need help, forgiveness, all right, but **what is there about me to ask the Lord to do it for my sake? Nothing. Absolutely nothing.** But when I ask God to have mercy upon my requests for Christ's sake, that adds weight to my petition. Shows our knowledge of our unworthiness, and shows our belief in Christ's worthiness. From the [Catholic Encyclopedia](https://www.newadvent.org/cathen/10202b.htm) : >the Council of Trent emphatically declares (Sess. VI, cap. xvi, in Denzinger, 10th ed., Freiburg, 1908, n. 810): "the Lord . . . whose bounty towards all men is so great, that He will have the things, which are His own gifts, be their merits." Since the Catholic Church believes that some merits are given by God to be a man's own, does it follow that "for Jesus' sake" is NOT "foundational to all [his] prayers?" And, if the phrase is not foundational to Catholic prayer, when (if ever) is the phrase *acceptable* in Catholic prayer?