The Catholic Church always has taught that Our Lord Alone redeemed mankind; and so, only through Him are salvation and Grace obtained. The term *mediator* means a "go-between." Thus, and in a sense, we are *mediators* when we pray to God on behalf of another person. Over the centuries, many Christians have believed the Blessed Virgin is the dispenser of all of the Graces which God deigns to grant; for example, St. Peter Damian: "In thy hands are all the Treasures of Divine Mercies." St. Bernardine of Sienna: "Thou art the dispenser of all Graces; our salvation rests in thy hands." And also, says St. Alphonsus Liguori, "was the doctrine of St. John Damascene, of St. Germanus, of St. Anselm, of St. Antonine, of Idiota, and of so many other learned authors..." Furthermore, although The Church has never solemnly defined this as dogma, the term "Mediatrix of All Graces" seems to have been used for centuries in reference to the Blessed Virgin Mary. As far as I can tell, the title dates back at least the fifth century, when Bishop Basil of Selucia made use of it. Prior to that, Church Father, St. Ephrem of Syria (4th century) writes: *"after the mediator, you (Mary) are the mediatrix of the whole world."* However, I'm not sure this means "mediatrix of all graces." QUESTION: When might the title, "Mediatrix of All Graces," first have been applied to the Blessed Mother; and, did any of the Church Fathers definitely make use of it (or something equivalent to it) to describe the Mother of God? Thank you.

Protestants reject the Catholic and Orthodox practice of asking deceased saints to pray for them, and I think there are two main reasons why they reject it: it is communicating with the dead, and it is dishonouring to Jesus. The first has been dealt with in many other questions, but I'd like to focus on the second one to see how valid an argument it is. So the second major reasons why protestants don't ask the deceased to pray for them is that they believe they need no other mediator than Jesus. For protestants, asking anyone other than Jesus to intercede with God for them is dishonouring to Jesus! But Protestant Christians have no hesitation at all in asking *living* Christians to pray for them. Why does the argument against dead Christians not apply to living Christians? If you ask your Christian brother or sister to pray for you, why is that not seeking another mediator than Jesus? The Bible clearly instructs us to pray for others, and it frequently show that early Christians asked other Christians to pray for them (ex. in Paul's letters), but does it ever instruct us to ask others to pray for us?

According to the Thayer's Greek Lexicon , the word "mediator" (greek: mesités) has the meaning of: > one who intervenes between two, either in order to make or restore > peace and friendship, or to form, or for ratifying a > covenant: a medium of communication, arbitrator > i. e. every mediator, whoever acts as mediator, does not belong to one party but to two or more "One who intervenes between two" implies the mediator to be a third distinct person, party or entity. The noun "mediator" occurs 6 times in the Bible: 1) **Galatians 3:19** > What purpose then does the law serve? It was added because of > transgressions, till the Seed should come to whom the promise was > made; and it was appointed through angels by the hand of a **mediator**. - Galatians 3:19 The unnamed mediator in this verse is **Moses**. The Law covenant involved two parties. It was made between YHWH and the nation of Israel, with Moses as mediator. 2) **Galatians 3:20** > Now a **mediator** does not mediate for one only, but God is one. - Galatians 3:20 Paul is discussing the covenant that God made with Abraham. YHWH made this covenant which was a one-sided *promise*, and it was up to Him to fulfill it. He set forth no conditions that Abraham had to meet. (Ga 3:18) Hence why no mediator was required in the covenant with Abraham. 3) **1. Timothy 2:5** > For there is one God and one **Mediator** between God and men, the Man Christ Jesus - 1.Timothy 2:5 4) Hebrews 8:6 > But now He (Jesus) has obtained a more excellent ministry, inasmuch as He is > also **Mediator** of a better covenant, which was established on better > promises. - Hebrews 8:6 5) Hebrews 9:15 > And for this reason He (Jesus) is the **Mediator** of the new covenant, by means > of death, for the redemption of the transgressions under the first > covenant, that those who are called may receive the promise of the > eternal inheritance. - Hebrews 9:15 6) Hebrews 12:24 > to Jesus the **Mediator** of the new covenant, and to the blood of > sprinkling that speaks better things than that of Abel. - Hebrews 12:24 Jesus is called “a mediator of a new covenant.” Jesus “gave Himself as a ransom for all,” laying the basis for men and women of all sorts to be brought into the new covenant. (1 Timothy 2:6) > Trinitarians believe that Jesus intercedes **with the Father** on our > behalf. He can do this because he is a distinct person, and he is the > only competent mediator because only God can truly mediate with > himself. (https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/30648/65225) GotQuestians , a protestant website says: > As man and God, Jesus is uniquely equipped to represent both sides. He > **alone** stands in the gap between God and man. He alone meets the > righteous requirements of the law, opening the way into God’s presence > once and for all through His death on the cross and resurrection to > life However, by definition , a mediator is a **third party** who can represent both party interests, who acts as a go-between between 2 parties. In the case of the Law covenant: - God (1st party)---Moses (Mediator)---Ancient Israelites (2nd party) In the case of the New covenant it should look like: - God (1st party)---Jesus (Mediator)---Sinful Humans (2nd party) According to Trinitarian doctrine, Jesus is both fully God and fully Human. His origin being both human and divine does indeed make him the ideal and unique candidate for mediation, as no one can represent both sides better. The problem is Jesus being fully God (of which there is just ONE). Because if He is fully God according to Trinitarian doctrine, He fully IS the 1st party, in which case he can no longer be, by definition, his own mediator. While Jesus is believed to be fully **Man** as well, he IS not fully **MEN**/mankind/humanity, just as Moses fully was an Israelite, but was not fully the Nation of Israel. In the trinitarian sense, it would then look like this: - God (mediator & 1st party)--- _________ ---Sinful Humans(2nd party) There's no mediation here, as the mediator link in-between is missing. One solution attempt: from the quotes above, it is implied that the mediation happens between the first person of the Trinity, the Father, and Christians, with Jesus as the second person, distinct from the Father, who stands "**alone** in the gap between God and man" as the mediator. It would then look like this: - God the Father + God the Holy Spirit (1st party)---God the Son(Mediator)---Sinful Humans (2nd party) However, the mediation happens between **God** (not God the Father + HS only) and men according to 1. Timothy 2:5. **God** is one holistic party, and should not be divided into persons (Hebrews 3:20). Jesus pleads for us "at the right hand of **God**", not God the Father + HS only (Romans 8:34; Hebrews 7:25). He appears before **God** on our behalf, not God the Father only (Hebrews 9:24). When the Bible speaks about the true God, it always means the triune God and not a distinct person of the Godhead. So how can Jesus, a person of the triune God, who is the triune God, be a mediator between that triune God and men?

The concept of Mediatrix has Virgin Mary in a role of a mediator in the salvation process—at least that's what Wikipedia says: > Mediatrix in Roman Catholic Mariology refers to the role of the Blessed Virgin Mary as a mediator in the salvation process. From my admittedly biased point of view, this seems to clash with Paul's writing about Jesus being the only mediator between man and God. > [**1 Timothy 2:5-6 (ESV)**](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1tim%202:5-6&version=ESV) > 5 For there is one God, and there is one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus, 6 who gave himself as a ransom for all, which is the testimony given at the proper time. > What is the Catholic teaching about the Mediatrix concept? How is this passage interpreted? Do all Mariologists take this passage into account?

The Bible calls Jesus our mediator: > Christ Jesus is the one who died—more than that, who was raised—who is at the right hand of God, who indeed is interceding for us. (Romans 8:34, ESV) > > For there is one God, and there is one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus, (1 Timothy 2:5, ESV) > > Consequently, he [Jesus] is able to save to the uttermost those who draw near to God through him, since he always lives to make intercession for them. (Hebrews 7:25, ESV) Trinitarians believe that Jesus intercedes with the Father on our behalf. He can do this because he is a distinct person, and he is the only competent mediator because only God can truly mediate with himself. Modalism teaches that the Father, Son and Holy Spirit are "different *modes* or *aspects* of the One God, as perceived by *the believer*, rather than *three coeternal persons within the Godhead*." ([Wikipedia](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sabellianism)) If God is not multiple people, how can Jesus intercede with the father? How do modalists understand the role of Jesus as mediator?

The bible tells us both that Jesus has been given all authority but he also is ever making intercession for us with God the Father. Has there ever been any theological explanation by anyone on why Christ with all authority needs to make intercession if the Father has already entrusted him with all authority? **Hebrews 7:25** Consequently, he is able to save to the uttermost those who draw near to God through him, since he always lives to make intercession for them. **Romans 8:34** Who is to condemn? Christ Jesus is the one who died—more than that, who was raised—who is at the right hand of God, who indeed is interceding for us **Matthew 28:18** And Jesus came up and spoke to them, saying, “All authority has been given to Me in heaven and on earth. **Colossians 2:10** and in Him you have been made complete, and He is the head over all rule and authority; **1 Peter 3:22** who is at the right hand of God, having gone into heaven, after angels and authorities and powers had been subjected to Him. To clarify (from discussion in comments below): I am interested in this topic specifically, the relationship of Christ's authority with Christ's making intercession. This is a Jesus Christ specific topic and understanding the dynamic of his authority and his role as intercessor including the meanings of those words and roles in relationship to each other.

If Mary is "Mediatrix of all Graces" is it possible to say the saints are "Mediators of certain graces", according to Catholicism? E.g., the patron saint of finding lost things is a co-mediator who specifically dispenses the grace of finding lost things.

Following-up a previous question , what Biblical basis does the Catholic church claim for the special role of Priests, Cardinals, and Popes in the structure of the church?