I'm aware that a man is obligated to provide for his wife and children, but if the man is in the hospital or incapacitated, will the wife be obligated to provide for her kids in the least? I understand community support or zakat funds are supposed to be exhausted first before going to the wife, but isn't the wife 'obligated' to take care of her children even if financially in absence of other means if she's able to e.g has savings, wealth, etc?
I'm specifically Keen to understand about the obligation part, not good-will or optional act.
Asked by Waheed Ahmed
(41 rep)
Jan 31, 2025, 03:57 AM
Last activity: Jan 31, 2025, 07:13 AM
Last activity: Jan 31, 2025, 07:13 AM