I am a Russian Orthodox Christian, and I know other Russian Orthodox Christians who consider a woman's menses to be impure. As a woman, this monthly bleeding is not saying that I am evil or bad during that time. I am simply not pure. Here is a good explanation of this. However, I know we Orthodox Christians plan our weddings around the bride's menstruation cycle, because she should be completely pure at that time. Do other Christian denominations do this too?

I want to be a scientist, but I don’t know if the Bible says anything against women being scientists. It has said stuff like women should "be quiet" and "submit" (e.g. 1 Timothy 2:11). I know that there are many interpretations of that. I want to know if a woman can, in good conscience, pursue a career in science.

In 1 Corinthians 14, Paul give forbids women from speaking in church. 1 Corinthians 14 NIV > 34 Women should remain silent in the churches. They are not allowed to > speak, but must be in submission, as the law says. 35 If they want to > inquire about something, they should ask their own husbands at home; > for it is disgraceful for a woman to speak in the church. ... later > 39 Therefore, my brothers and sisters, be eager to prophesy, and do > not forbid speaking in tongues. 40 But everything should be done in a > fitting and orderly way. I am assuming the word in Greek Paul is using here for church is Ecclesia, and that he wasn't, in fact, referring to a physical meeting place, or house, but rather a Christian gathering in general (but perhaps I am mistaken in this). I wonder how it is that he explicitly forbids them to speak "They are not allowed to speak", but then a mere four verses later he is instructing 'brothers and sisters' to be eager to prophesy, and *speak* in tongues. If not at Christian gatherings, then where else were they prophesying and speaking in tongues? I understand that context is probably the key here, and that things in the Corinthian church had probably gotten very much out of hand, however, It just seems strange to me that if he meant women to speak in tongues and prophesy, he would have said "They are not allowed to speak *out of turn*", or something to that effect.

In 1 Timothy 2:15 (ESV), Paul writes: >“Yet she will be saved through childbearing—if they continue in faith and love and holiness, with self-control.” This verse is puzzling. If salvation is by grace through faith (Ephesians 2:8–9). What is the most common or doctrinally sound interpretation of this passage within mainstream Christianity?

The famous verse 1 Timothy 2:12 is widely referenced in discussions regarding women church leaders: > I do not permit a woman to teach or to have authority over a man; she > must be silent. My specific question is when Paul says "I do ..." why is this seen as instructional to the global church by those who hold that view, rather than him recounting what _he_ does? Is Paul viewed as inerrant when he _does_ give instruction?

We have in Matthew 1 the Genealogy of Jesus. Though Israel followed a patriarchal lineage, the names of five women find a place in the Genealogy. They are: Tamar, Rahab, Ruth, Bathsheba, and Mary. Of course, Mary, being the Blessed Virgin Mother of Jesus, is an indispensable figure in the Genealogy. But, what is the relevance of the mentions of the other four women? Is the significance the result of a common attribute, or is it specific to each?

Are Catholics allowed to oppose women holding public office? related question: https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/103246/1787

Are Catholics allowed to oppose women's suffrage? related question: https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/103247/1787

From my understanding, women play a huge role in the LDS church, e.g. The Relief Society (which was established in 1842 and has about 6 million members). Even though they don't have the priesthood and as such don't serve as Bishops, Stake Presidents, etc., they still give talks and say prayers in Sacrament Meetings and are in charge of Primary, Young Women's, etc. But I don't understand why LDS women are not able to be Sunday School Presidents. They can be teachers, but not the presidents? What is the LDS doctrine behind that? Why must a Sunday School President be a priesthood holder if they are not overseeing priesthood ordinances? When anyone receives a calling in the LDS Church, they can receive inspiration for their stewards -- regardless of what their gender is, so I don't know why must a Sunday School President be a male, especially if priesthood activities are not involved. Is is mainly based on tradition? Or is their doctrine behind this?

>"Let your women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak; but they are commanded to be under obedience, as also saith the law. And if they will learn any thing, let them ask their husbands at home: for it is a shame for women to speak in the church." (1 Corinthians 14:34-35). Here is another one. >"But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence. For Adam was first formed, then Eve. And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression." (1 Timothy 2:12-14). I asked my mom once about this and she explained that when the holy spirit descended, both men and women received it. And this gives us many different gifts such us prophesying, singing and preaching. I understood her but what I could not ask her was that, Corinthians and Timothy came after the holy spirit descended in Acts. In Africa you cannot keep on asking challenging questions to the elderly as it might be seen as disrespect. Someone help me here.

Christianity gets a bad reputation in its treatment of women in the modern day. However, when contrasting with the Roman Empire was it an improvement?

I've seen several different versions of this quotation, but the one constant is: > *Woman is a temple built over a sewer*. Other versions expand on this. Adding items such as > *Woman is a temple built over a sewer, the gateway to the devil. Woman, you are the devil’s doorway. You should always go in mourning and in rags.* or > *Woman is a temple built over a sewer, the gateway to the devil. Woman, you are the devil’s doorway. You led astray one whom the devil would not dare attack directly. It was your fault that the Son of God had to die; you should always go in mourning and rags*. But what is the original source? Putting the first quote in to Google reveals so many different versions that I'm beginning to doubt the existence of a primary source.

> Herod, on his birthday, gave a banquet for his courtiers, his > military officers, and the leading men of Galilee. Herodias’s own > daughter (named [Salome](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Salome) in Josephus) came in and performed a dance that delighted Herod and his > guests. The king said to the girl, “Ask of me whatever you wish and I > will grant it to you.” He even swore [many things] to her, “I will > grant you whatever you ask of me, even to half of my kingdom.” Modern depictions of this event often play up its sexual connotations, portraying Herod Antipas as a lecherous old man salivating as his step daughter performed something called the [Dance of the Seven Veils](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dance_of_the_Seven_Veils) . It turns out this dance is a fiction, and the text says only that it delighted Herod and his guests - so much so that he offered half his kingdom as a reward. My question is what motivated him? Was it lechery? Should we give him the benefit of the doubt and see his offer as the result of his heart being moved by Salome's innocent dance of modest maidenly beauty? Or was it perhaps the fact that his marriage to Herodias was a subject of public controversy and by making such an offer to Salome in a public setting, Antipas was demonstrating a commitment to accept Herodias' offspring as his own, despite not being her physical father? --------------- NOTE: Interpretations from various denominational perspectives are welcome. I ask the question here rather than BH.se because the text itself provides no direct answer.

What are some examples of canonized saints either 1. educating or disciplining women over insubordination in church matters where a priest or bishop would be expected to be in charge or 2. not tolerating disrespect to the clerical offices?

Is there an online edition or English translation of: - Hildebrand, Dietrich von. “Die Bedeutung von Mann und Frau füreinander ausserhalb der Ehe.” In *Zeitliches Im Lichte Des Ewigen *, 143–44. Regensburg, 1932. ? It was cited in *Pastoral Psychology in Practice* by Willibald Demal, OSB, ch. 8 "The Psychology of Celibacy" .

The concept of "fivefold ministry" comes from Ephesians 4:11-13: > 11 And he gave **the apostles, the prophets, the evangelists, the shepherds and teachers**, 12 to equip the saints for the work of ministry, for building up the body of Christ, 13 until we all attain to the unity of the faith and of the knowledge of the Son of God, to mature manhood, to the measure of the stature of the fullness of Christ [ESV] Are there any denominations that believe that the totality of the fivefold ministry is available to women? In other words, are there any denominations that believe that the existence of female pastors, female teachers, female evangelists, female prophets and female apostles is entirely within the realm of possibility in modern times? **Note:** for reasons for not conflating spiritual gifts and church offices (some make this distinction), see https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/90856/50422 ___ **Related**: https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/90741/50422

It seems that that [1Timothy 2:12-14 (NASB)](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1%20Timothy%202:12-14&version=NASB) says that women shouldn't be pastors. But there are many denominations that allow this. >[1 Timothy 2:12-14 (NASB)](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1%20Timothy%202:12-14&version=NASB)
> **12** But I do not allow a woman to teach or exercise authority over a > man, but to remain quiet. > **13** For it was Adam who was first created, and then Eve. > **14** And it was not Adam who was deceived, but the woman being > deceived, fell into transgression. This idea also seems supported by the [command that women should remain *silent* in church (1 Corinthians 14:34-35)](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1%20Corinthians%2014:34-35&version=NASB) . What is the biblical basis for allowing women to preach or be a pastor? Specifically, what is the biblical basis of the doctrine of [ordination of women](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ordination_of_women#Christianity) ? Also, how do the followers of this doctrine reconcile their beliefs with that of [1 Timothy](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1%20Timothy%202:12-14&version=NASB) and [1 Corinthians 14:34-35](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1%20Corinthians%2014:34-35&version=NASB) above?

Before beginning my question, I'd like to clarify what I mean by 'Apostolic Christian'. By this, I mean anyone in the Assyrian, Oriental Orthodox, Eastern Orthodox, or Roman Catholic Communions. The book of Sirach is a deuterocanonical book rejected by most Protestants as Scripture, but accepted as Scripture by most everyone else. It has several verses that are extremely problematic *prima facie* relating to women; all quotations are from the NSRV-CI. > For from garments comes the moth,\ > and from a woman comes woman’s wickedness.\ > Better is the wickedness of a man than a woman who does good;\ > it is woman who brings shame and disgrace.\ > -Sirach 42:13-14 > From a woman sin had its beginning,\ > and because of her we all die....\ > If she [that is, your wife] does not go as you direct,\ > separate her from yourself.\ > -Sirach 25:24,26 > It is a disgrace to be the father of an undisciplined son,\ and the birth of a daughter is a loss.\ -Sirach 22:3 > He who acquires a wife gets his best possession,\ a helper fit for him and a pillar of support.\ Sirach 36:29 Unfortunately, I could quote many more. Jesus ben Sirach here says that women's goodness is worse than man's wickedness; that women were the originators of sin; that if wives do not listen to you, they should be abandoned; that wives are possessions; and that, of course, the birth of a daughter is a loss. When discussing a headstrong daughter, he is incredibly obscene: > As a thirsty traveler opens his mouth\ and drinks from any water near him,\ so she will sit in front of every tent peg\ and open her quiver to the arrow.\ -Sirach 26:15 How do folks who accept this book as inspired Scripture interpret these in light of the Gospel? Patristic citations are both welcome and appreciated.

A simple Google search turns up conflicting answers. [One source](https://askmormongirl.wordpress.com/category/working-mothers/) says that some temples have no restrictions on menstruating Mormons, require menstruating Mormons to wear tampons, or bar menstruating women from being baptized. Do these restrictions really apply to new converts? Do they vary within individual Mormon temples? What about churches? In individual churches, are Mormon converts who are menstruating on the day of the scheduled baptism barred from baptism, or do they have to pick a different day? Do menstruating Mormons have to wear a tampon? Would a pad suffice?

In certain religions, women are considered as ritually impure during their menstrual cycles. They are asked not to participate in sacred rituals etc during those times. Is it the same in Christianity? Are menstruating women considered ritually impure in Christianity? Please cite from the Holy scriptures to prove your claims.