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Do any Christian traditions think that evil desires are not sin?

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4 answers
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There are several related questions already about this topic on C.SE, such as ["What does it mean that Jesus was tempted in every way like us (yet without sin)?"](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/7146/what-does-it-mean-that-jesus-was-tempted-in-every-way-like-us-yet-without-sin) and ["What is temptation?"](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/14116/what-is-temptation) . My question is focusing on the phenomena that some people say that *having* evil desires isn't sinful in itself, but *yielding* to them is sinful. Others say that sinful desires are *inherently* sinful. It seems that there isn't agreement within broader Christianity about this issue, so I'm curious about which particular traditions (if any) teach that having evil desires does not necessarily mean that one is sinning. No doubt the answer to this question is especially related to this question: ["Would it have been possible for Jesus to sin?"](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/2485/would-it-have-been-possible-for-jesus-to-sin) , with particular regard to the question of whether Jesus had evil desires (I don't think he did).
Asked by Cohen_the_Librarian (580 rep)
Mar 31, 2014, 03:11 AM
Last activity: Jul 25, 2021, 02:48 PM