What is the biblical basis that Jesus could not sin?

We all know Jesus was without sin. That he *did not sin* has little to do with whether he *could* or *could not* sin. The core reasoning of Jesus being *able to sin* is that he was tempted. This temptation was a core part of his lifelong journey to the cross. >For we do not have a high priest who is unable to empathize with our weaknesses, but we have one who has been **tempted in every way, just as we are**—yet he did not sin. Heb 4:15 We know he had his own will which differed from God's. Satan knew this when he tried to tempt Jesus into exercising his own will for selfish purposes. >"For I have come down from heaven not to do my will but to do the will of him who sent me" John 6:38 >"Take this cup from me. Yet not what I will, but what you will” Mark 14:36 There is no dispute that he *was tempted* in the manner of putting his will before God's. However, this temptation is only valid if he *could* succumb to temptation and actually sin? IOW, if he *could not* sin, then the temptation was pointless and a farce. Which seems a highly unlikely proposition. If Jesus' temptations were true and real, then he must have been able to sin. Is there is a biblical basis for him *not being able* to sin? There is another Q asking from a reformed aspect - see comments. This Q seeks to obtain any relevant biblical source. Link to question given in comments: https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/53150/how-does-reformed-theology-reconcile-jesus-meaningful-temptation-and-impeccabil