Are not all Gods in different religions the same one? Same God given different names being praised in different ways according to different customs and traditions but the message is the same! The Ten Commandments are present one way or another in all holy books of all religions. Aren’t we all praying to the same God?

Many Christians emphasize the importance of having an actual *relationship with God/Jesus* as opposed to merely being *religious*. The previously asked question https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/69228/50422 attests very well to this fact. But what about when people from other religions claim to have similar personal relationship experiences with their deities? For example, a Muslim claiming to have a personal relationship with Allah, a Hindu claiming to have a personal relationship with Brahman, a Hare Krishna claiming to have a personal relationship with Lord Krishna, a New Ager claiming to have a personal relationship with the Universe, their spirit guides, their higher self, etc. Qualitatively speaking, what sets the Christian *relationship with God* apart from *relationship* experiences that people claim to have in other religions? What makes the Christian *relationship with God* special and unique? Are people in other religions just having counterfeit, deceitful experiences? ____ Related: - https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/84362/50422 - https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/86124/50422

There are a number of Christians (groups that believe in Christ and name themselves "Christian") who don't believe in the Trinity. Many of these are broadly considered Christians. Muslims are non-Trinitarians, but they believe in Jesus and claim that they follow his teachings. Why won't Muslims be considered Muslims and Christians at the same time in the sight of God?

Jesus in Matthew 12 appears to give a compelling argument against the possibility of demons casting out other demons: > 22 Then they brought him a demon-possessed man who was blind and mute, and Jesus healed him, so that he could both talk and see. 23 All the people were astonished and said, “Could this be the Son of David?” > > 24 But when the Pharisees heard this, they said, “It is only by Beelzebul, the prince of demons, that this fellow drives out demons.” > > 25 Jesus knew their thoughts and said to them, “Every kingdom divided against itself will be ruined, and every city or household divided against itself will not stand. 26 **If Satan drives out Satan, he is divided against himself**. How then can his kingdom stand? 27 And if I drive out demons by Beelzebul, by whom do your people drive them out? So then, they will be your judges. 28 **But if it is by the Spirit of God that I drive out demons, then the kingdom of God has come upon you**. > > [Matthew 12:22-28, NIV] In other words, demons are cast out by the power of the Spirit of God, and in the case of Christians, in the name of Jesus. That said, according to the Wikipedia article on [Exorcism](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Exorcism) , exorcisms have been practiced since antiquity in other religions. And I find this problematic, because if we think about it, non-Christians do not have the power of the Spirit nor the name of Jesus to drive out demons during an exorcism. And they can't be using the power of Satan either, as per Jesus' argumentation in Matthew 12:22-28. So there appear to be no other options left, and we are faced with a dilemma. **Question**: How do Christians make sense of exorcisms in other religions? Are exorcisms in other religions compatible with a Christian worldview? ____ *Note: I'm not sure if I should request answers from a specific denomination or Christian group for this one. I would imagine that most Christians believe that demons exist and can be cast out, and I'm not sure if there is a specific denomination with an official position regarding exorcisms in other religions. But in any case, if this question needs editing, feel free to let me know or go ahead and edit it yourself.*

I realized today that when I used the word "demons" I was thinking of evil spirits of all varieties, including human beings that work evil from the spirit world. But others believe the word "demon" only applies to non-human spirits such as fallen angels or perhaps evil deities of some sort. In the Bible, Jesus refers to the "unclean spirit" [or spirits] that possessed the man who called himself Legion because he was tormented by so many evil spirits. > [Jesus said] “Come out of the man, you unclean spirit!” And Jesus > asked him, “What is your name?” He replied, “My name is Legion; for we > are many.” And he begged him eagerly not to send them out of the > country. Now a great herd of swine was feeding there on the > hillside; and they [the spirits] begged him, “Send us to the swine, let us enter > them.” So he gave them leave. And the unclean spirits came out, and > entered the swine; and the herd, numbering about two thousand, rushed > down the steep bank into the sea, and were drowned in the sea. (Mark > 5:9-13) But elsewhere, Jesus heals various people possessed by "demons." > That evening they brought to him many who were possessed with demons; > and he cast out the spirits with a word, and healed all who were sick. I'd like to know more about how various Christian denominations and other religions view those who do evil in the spiritual realm, and especially: do they believe that the term "demons" includes evil spirits who were once human beings. Rather than personal opinions, a good answer will provide the perspectives of several religions or experts. I would not rule out spiritualists in the latter category.

This paper [*The Priority of Mandaean Tropes Generally Considered Derivative of Christian and Islamic Influences*](https://www.academia.edu/32005295/The_Priority_of_Mandaean_Tropes_Generally_Considered_Derivative_of_Christian_and_Islamic_Influences) seems to show that [Mandaenism](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mandaeism) influenced a lot of Christianity and Islam, as we see many parallels between the texts, instead of the reverse claim (which the paper calls "standard model") that Islam and Christianity influenced the *Ginza Rabba* text. **How would Christianity evaluate whether this claim is correct?**

Whereas Jehovah's Witnesses believe Jerusalem was destroyed in 607 BC, historians, many evangelical Christians, and most others who write on such things believe it was destroyed in either 587 or 586 BCE: this is the general consensus outside of the confines of the JW world. Is there any Biblical evidence to support either of the two dates 587/586? What other evidence supports either of these dates? Please give evidence, either Biblical or extra-Biblical, not just statements of belief. All except JWs are invited to answer - JWs have their own related question - https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/78706/23657 - as long as you declare your doctrinal/denominational position. Even a reference to your stack exchange profile would be fine, as long as the profile describes your doctrinal/denominational position. A question asking for evidence in favour of 586 BC rather than 587 BC, or vice versa, is asked here: https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/96158/was-the-destruction-of-the-first-temple-in-586-bc-or-587-bc

**Can a Buddhist monk or a yogi be a Holy Spirit?** As far as I understand, they're masters in doing deep breathing and meditation.  For me, there are only a few monks/nuns who have mastered the technique above. Unfortunately, I cannot find any Christians, pastors, or priests who know anything about it, but normally they will respond by citing [*Sola Fide*](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sola_fide) (faith alone) or with the advice to just pray everyday so eventually the skill will be awakened by itself. Not even psychologists, psychiatrists, or regular medical doctors know about it, or they only have very basic knowledge. A few high level monks I *did* find meet all 11 personal characteristics of the Holy Spirit listed in [this article](https://get.tithe.ly/blog/characteristics-of-the-holy-spirit) , placing a nice bow on this topic: 1. He’s referred to as a Person (John 6:63; 14:26; Rom. 8:11, 16, 26; 1 John 5:6). 1. He speaks (2 Sam. 23:2; Acts 1:16; 8:29; 10:19; 11:12; 13:2; 21:11; 28:25–26; 1 Tim. 4:1; Heb. 3:7–8; Rev. 2:7; 14:13; 22:17). 1. He witnesses (John 15:26). 1. He searches (1 Cor. 2:11). 1. He can be grieved (Isa. 63:10; Eph. 4:30). 1. He loves (Rom. 15:30). 1. He has a mind (Rom. 8:27). 1. He has intelligence (1 Cor. 2:10–11). 1. He can be tested (Acts 5:9). 1. He can be resisted (Acts 7:5). 1. He has a will (1 Cor. 2:11; 12:7–11). **Can I get their advice and learn their technique of deep breathing and meditation, providing I do them under the conditions below?** 1. The technique is not related to religion but rather to science or logic. 2. I am not required to worship any form of Idol or Gods (only the Mahayana version of Buddhism may have a theology of worship, but the original Shakyamuni, the founder of Buddhism, didn't mention anything about worshiping). 3. I am not being invited or forced into Buddhism.  **They also don't try to convert me, but instead**: 1. They praise and respect Christianity. 2. They wish me well in Christianity and allow me to share the Gospel in the Monastery. 3. They offer help whenever there is a need, such as co-operating in doing charity work. 4. Buddhism members are willing to join my cell group to learn about or even to one day (soon?) join Christianity. 5. Buddhism members are willing to cooperate in a mission filled with Sharing the Gospel activities when my church needs additional man-power.

As we know, Judaism, Christianity and Islam are the main 3 monotheistic religions. Quran says: > Surely, those who believed in [God], and those who are Jews, and Christians, and Sabians, -whosoever believes in [God] and in the Last Day, and does good deeds - all such people will have their reward with their Lord, and there will be no reason for them to fear, nor shall they grieve. [*Surah Al-Baqarah* 62](https://quran.com/2/62?translations=18,84,85,21,22,95,101) By the way [Sabians](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sabians) are also a from a monotheistic religion, John the Baptist was a prophet of them. From Islam point of view, if you believe God is one and do good deeds then you shouldn’t worry about your salvation. Is it like this also in Christianity, or is salvation exclusively for Christians?

Does Christianity teach anything resembling soul transfer as in Hinduism's understanding of The Journey of the Atman ?

I would like to delve into the Christian perspective on whether God can be credited for the healing process of an individual who, initially not a Muslim, converts to Islam and undergoes genuine spiritual renewal, or at least claims to undergo such a renewal, based on their self-reported experience. One can find many such testimonies on the web ([example 1](https://youtu.be/4-l7cemjwyI?t=605) , [example 2](https://youtu.be/nwjJS6wfv-s?t=547) , [example 3](https://youtu.be/Ertxy9kMB7M) , [example 4](https://youtu.be/8jNuBgSqYks) , [example 5](https://www.youtube.com/@MuslimConvertStories)) . I want to understand the Christian viewpoint regarding divine involvement in the well-being and spiritual growth of individuals who undergo a religious transformation, particularly in the context of the conversion of a non-Muslim to the Islamic faith. Is it conceivable that God plays a role in the spiritual development of a Muslim convert? **Are there any Christian denominations that believe this is possible in principle?** Or are all Christians denominations necessarily committed by theological reasons to ascribe any improvement and healing experienced by a Muslim convert to psychology, sociology, the influence of deceptive spirits, or any combination of these factors? *Note*: While this question can be broadly applied to individuals reporting healing and spiritual growth in various religions, my primary focus is on Islam, given its close association as an Abrahamic faith, alongside Judaism, with Christianity.

Jews had prophets and received Scriptures from those prophets. Later, came Christians who had apostles and through them received Scriptures. Still later, Muslims come along and they have one prophet Muhammad and through him they received Quran. Muhammad claimed that he belongs to the prophetic line of the Judeo-Christian tradition. In the Quran, the book Muhammad gave as the Scriptures, he quotes many familiar names and stories from the Bible. Why don't Christians, mainly Protestant Christians, accept the Islamic prophet Muhammad as a true prophet of God? If they don't, why? An already discussed question in this forum has been offered as an answer to this question. Here it is: https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/87277/50422 However, the above question and the responses it gathered do not answer my question as I explain below. My above questions in the OP do not seek general reasons to test all those who claim to be the prophets of God, rather they focus only on the Islamic prophet Muhammad and his claims. Furthermore, none of the answers given in the above link examine Muhammad's teachings in the light of the Biblical teachings.

I remember once saw a Youtube video of some Christian priest mentioned about a specific difference between Christianity and other religions, namely in all other religions the messengers or founders had won battle with Satan, but only Jesus Christ as God transformed human flesh died and crucified for Satan (or by Satan, I cannot clearly recall), thus Satan would always fight back. I'm not entirely clear about the implication of such narrated difference. Is there any well known conclusion or school of thought of Christianity discussed this topic in depth?

Matthew 5:44 KJV >But I say unto you, Love your enemies, bless them that curse you, do good to them that hate you, and pray for them which despitefully use you, and persecute you; In Buddhism, it is taught that you should love your enemies because, at some time in the infinite sequence of rebirths, it was certainly the case that your enemy was once your mother. Therefore, hating your enemy is as irrational as hating your mother. This isn't a true explanation, but it is a rational justification for loving your enemies. But in Christianity, everyone is an atom created by the Creator, completely detached from everyone else. In light of this, **why is it rational to love your enemies?**

Christians see Jesus as the only Son of God who incarnated as a human being to redeem mankind from sin in fulfilment of the prophesies made in the Old Testament. The Qur'an refers to Jesus as one of the greatest prophets and accepts his Virgin Birth and Second Coming. Jews on the other hand, question the divinity of Jesus and consider his as the 'prophet of disaster'. They do not accept that Jesus fulfilled numerous prophecies of the OT. Although Christianity from its side treats Judaism as its source (Jesus himself having been a Jew in human form), and reveres the forefathers such as Abraham and David, it is doubtful if the Jews reciprocate the respect and the regard Christianity pays to Judaism. Of course, the political alignment has its own course in so far as Christian, Jewish and Muslim believers are concerned. One is however inclined to believe that in so far as religious belief is concerned, followers of Islam have more affinity to Christianity than the Jews have. **My question therefore is**: Has any comparative study been made on the perception of Christianity held by Judaism *vis-a-vis* that held by Islam?

It's well-known that in the Bible God mentioned all about Israel and its people like Judaism. Judaism and Christianity believe in the same Bibles also. So Judaism is an ethnic religion according to their claim. If anyone wants to be Jewish, he can't be. One must be from that ethnicity to be Jewish. It's same for many African, Indian, Chinese and so many other ethnic religions. But in case of Islam we see that God never said "O people of Arab". Qur'an is all about people of the world. God always talked about all humankind. So in case of Christianity, it seems an ethnic religion like all other ethnic religions. But why Christians claim it to be universal religion? Did Jesus or God say that the Bible is for all humankind or Christianity is for all humankind? **What is the logic of Christianity being different from other ethnic religions?**

[Apostasy](https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Apostasy) >Apostasy (/əˈpɒstəsi/; Greek: ἀποστασία apostasía, 'a defection or revolt') is the formal disaffiliation from, abandonment of, or renunciation of a religion by a person. It can also be defined within the broader context of embracing an opinion that is contrary to one's previous religious beliefs. One who undertakes apostasy is known as an apostate. Undertaking apostasy is called apostatizing (or apostasizing – also spelled apostacizing). The term apostasy is used by sociologists to mean the renunciation and criticism of, or opposition to, a person's former religion, in a technical sense, with no pejorative connotation. ~ Wikipedia [Heresy](https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Heresy) >Heresy is any belief or theory that is strongly at variance with established beliefs or customs, in particular the accepted beliefs of a church or religious organization. The term is usually used in reference to violations of important religious teachings, but is also used of views strongly opposed to any generally accepted ideas. A heretic is a proponent of heresy. ~Wikipedia Is it possible to be a heretic and not an apostate and vice versa? What about in other religions like Islam?

I was reading a *Tampa Bay Times* article published on 5 March 2005, [Jewish, Catholic, Protestant commandments differ](https://www.tampabay.com/archive/2005/03/05/jewish-catholic-protestant-commandments-differ/) , which prompted my question: **Why is Judaism's ten commandments different from Catholicism's**?

Most Catholic text books about religion are about Catholicism, I asked my high-school aged daughter what she wants to study next year for religion class and she said she's like to know about other religions. I'm having a hard time finding these kinds of books. Most popular authors will write a book condemning this or that other religion, but I just want one that honestly compares them all without being wishywashy about which is better. Otherwise, I think I'd have to piece together about a hundred books.

**Background** Frequently, Creationists and Theistic Evolutionists will appeal to and debate/discuss the idea of *"Creatio Ex Nihilo"* (Latin for "creation from nothing") with some critiquing the concept and claiming that Genesis [does](https://afkimel.wordpress.com/2015/04/06/creatio-ex-nihilo-is-it-found-in-the-bible/) not [assume]( https://earlychurch.org.uk/article_exnihilo_copan.html) *creatio [ex nihilo](http://www.patheos.com/blogs/faithpromotingrumor/2009/05/thats-not-in-the-bible-creation-ex-nihilo-and-israelite-cosmology/)*. These critics often assert that the concept arose out of Greco-Roman philosophy. According to Wikipedia , > Some scholars\[*which?*\] have argued that Plethon viewed Plato as positing *ex nihilo* creation in his *[Timaeus](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Timaeus_(dialogue))* ... [and] ... The [School of Chartres](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/School_of_Chartres_) understood the creation account in Plato's Timaeus to refer to creatio ex nihilo. And this appeared to be a [topic of interest and discussion](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nothing_comes_from_nothing) amongst the philosophers. **Question** What, exactly were the arguments for the philosophical concept of *Creatio Ex Nihilo* made by the classical philosophers and what relationship (if any) does this have to [Plato's Theory of Forms](https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/22641/what-is-the-difference-between-the-%CE%BC%CE%BF%CF%81%CF%86%E1%BF%87-of-god-and-the-%CE%B5%E1%BC%B6%CE%B4%CE%BF%CF%82-of-god/25185#25185) ? How might these arguments have influenced the modern Christian doctrine of *Creatio Ex Nihilo*, and what relationship do these ancient philsopical arguments have (if any) with it?