maternal and paternal uncles aren't mentioned in surah nur verse 31 where it allows a woman to reveal her adornments to certain people. Does she cover in front of her uncles?

My question is from [this short video lecture](https://ms.jaag.pk/cont/v/sd/5/5c0e1b741eb2ed7b0002e797.mp4) . He summarizes the concept of pardah/hijab/covering in 3 points. a. Surah Noor - Lower your gaze for both men and women, i.e. look at opposite sex with respect and dignity. b. Safeguard your *sharamgaah* for both men and women. c. Ocassionally when women are wearing ornaments and make up etc, then women have to cover everything except face, hands and feet. 1. **Question from Point b above:** What is the Quranic verse which tells us to safeguard the sharamgaah? Essentially, what specific Arabic word is used for sharamgaah, and does that word only mean genitals? 2. **Questions from Point c above:** (2a) What is the source of this instruction to cover everything except face, hands and feet in case of make-up and ornaments? Where exactly is it said in Quran or authentic Hadith? (2b) I go for *no-make-up makeup look* for my office everything, which is very little make-up applied in colors close to skin-tone, so that face just looks fresh and awake (and not sick). Does it make me qualified for point c above?

In the Qur'an, while talking about the disbelievers, God says "[لا تحسبن الذين كفروا معجزين في الأرض](http://quran.com/24/57) ". I have, however, seen two very different translations for this *ayah*: > * Never think that the disbelievers **are causing failure [to Allah] upon the earth**... >(*Sahih International*) > * Consider not that the disbelievers **can escape in the land**... >(*M.M.Khan*) Of the major translations I checked, the first interpretation seems to additionally be held by Ali and Ghali, whereas the second interpretation is held by Pickthall and Shakir (as well as by [Tafsir Ibn Kathir](http://www.qtafsir.com/index.php?option=com_content&task=view&id=2415&Itemid=79)) ; this fairly even split suggests that both are valid translations rather than either of them being a rogue interpretation. How strong, exactly, is each interpretation, and where does this difference stem from? Are either of these translations more "correct" (for lack of a better term)?

> "... that they should draw their khimār over their breasts and not display their beauty except to their husband, their fathers, their husband's fathers, their sons, their husbands' sons, their brothers or their brothers' sons, or their sisters' sons, or their (Muslim) women, or the slaves whom their right hands possess, or male servants free of physical needs, or small children who have no sense of the shame of sex..." Quran 24:31 This is what I found in the hadith: > Narrated Safiya bint Shaiba: "Aisha used to say: 'When (the Verse): "They should draw their veils (Khumur) over their necks and bosoms (juyyub)," was revealed, (the ladies) cut their waist sheets at the edges and covered their faces with the cut pieces.'" \Sahih al-Bukhari, 6:60:282, [32:4091 \] (Wikipedia ) As you can see, the hadith quotes the ayah diffently from the Quran. First, it uses the word "khumur" instead of "khimar". Then, the hadith mentions that the khumur must also be worn over the neck. But the Ayah in the Quran makes no mention of neck. So was this ayah changed or not?

What is the meaning of "لَّا شَرْقِيَّةٍ وَلَا غَرْبِيَّةٍ" (neither Eastern nor Western) in surah Noor:35 ? > God is the Light of Heaven and Earth! His light may be compared to a > niche in which there is a lamp; the lamp is in a glass; the glass is > just as if it were a glittering star kindled from a blessed olive > tree,] which is [neither Eastern nor Western, whose oil will almost > glow though fire has never touched it. Light upon light, God guides > anyone He wishes to His light. God composes parables for mankind; God > is Aware of everything!