Suppose a man had marriage with a woman. It was stipulated in the nikkah contract that she would continue working after marriage. Now some problems arise, A) She does not wear hijab due to one or the other reason. B) She works in a mixed working place (like say coed school, company with no segregation in a non Muslim country,etc). C) She many times is not able to fulfill her husband's rights. D) After 3 years, she has a child. But her working out may harm the child's development. Can the husband in these case ask her to withdraw from work? Note: The first 2 cases are something haram, 3rd case is inability to fulfil something obligatory while doing something optional and the 4th one is about her responsibility. Please answer with valid sources.

From what I understand, in Islam marriage is a contract. And conditions can be set in it breaking of which can be grounds for divorce. Thus is it acceptable or considered makruh for a female to stipulate that her husband not marry another woman while married to her i.e **deny him to be polygamous** Or would this make her a sinner as she is making something that is Halal for him to be impermissible?

Many States in the Arabian Peninsula use their muslim brothers from Bangladesh on 3-year rolling contracts with a six month break to return to their families. Many of these men are married. This tears them away from their children & their wives. Given the stipulations in the Hadith about sexual abstinence, the claims of wives have on their husbands, that husbands have on their wives, is this practice not Haram? If it is, then it is not Haram practice by simply the contracting companies, but also by both States; as it requires the collaboration of the both States for these schemes to become a practical reality. (I'm talking about both the Bangladeshi State & Arabian State. But of course Bangladesh is in a weaker position here). Unfortunately, I do not read Arabic; nor Bengali well enough to know whether there has been a debate on this issue in either the Islamic States in question, nor in Bangladesh. The English press, in Bangladesh seems to have been silent on this issue. But then again, this may be due to my ignorance, I don't spend a great deal of time there, nor do the people I know there tend to be highly literate. Basically, the question hinges on what counts as human trafficking in Shariah, and what is legitimate. (Of course, there is the practice of these Work Visas being bought & sold at the rural level at $3500, when the per-capita income of Bangladesh is $850; and at the rural level its much less. I do know that the Malaysian Government is trying to do something about this, if not the Arabian States, but I'd like to bring that up in a separate question, but I'm not sure its legitimate here).

One year ago i married my lovely husband without a marriage contract but in front of about 20-30 witnesses from my husbands family in morocco and a lovely iman who came and blessed our marriage. Since then his sisters and parents are very jealous of us both and picking holes in our marriage. Firstly they say its not valid because we did not have a dowry. I am 47 years old and married before but my husband died. My husband is a little younger at 34. We recently had our first baby still born and this was the start of all this nonsense. We are extremely happy and in love and we did not commit any haram acts before our marriage. My husband gave me a dowry to stop them going on nasty to me but now this is paid they find something else to complain about. This time it is that we did not have a written contract. As far as we are concerned we married with love and great intentions with all his family there and happy and agreeing. Just after we lose our baby does all this nasty behaviour start. I feel they are picking at any point to say our marriage is not valid so they can tell him to leave me. We are in love and married and whether our son died or not we still have a son. He will never never leave me and i will not leave him. Are they right our marriage is not valid please???

Although I can't find a text saying exactly this, making something permissible forbidden or making something forbidden permissible is a (I think major) sin in Islam; see e.g. [16:116](https://quran.com/16/116) for something related. Now this is clear in the case of someone outright claiming that something that is known to be halal by consensus - such as drinking water - is haram, or claiming that something that is known to be haram by consensus - such as zina - is halal. This could possibly even be considered shirk, I'm not entirely sure. However, the lines become a bit blurry for me when oaths and contracts are involved. I vaguely remember reading a hadith about a person making an oath that they would refrain from doing some particular halal action, and Muhammad saying something like "don't make the permissible forbidden for yourself" - I'm not entirely sure that's what I read. In an [answer to another question](https://islam.stackexchange.com/a/38575/17702) , the matter of the marriage contract stipulating that the husband cannot take another wife came up; if he did, they wife would be entitled to annul the marriage unilaterally. However, this raises the question: does that mean the husband would be sinning if he does take another wife while that first marriage contract is in effect? If his violating that condition is considered a sin, that suggests that marrying another woman has become haram for him, thus making something permissible forbidden. If he doesn't sin, then how would a contract have to be worded to be considered as "making something permissible forbidden"? In a nutshell: - is an oath like "I swear not to eat chicken until the day I die" halal to make? - what is the difference in a contract between stipulating a condition that obliges one party to refrain from something halal, and making something permissible forbidden?