I figured in heaven it’s a totally different reality than the life we have here on earth. So, I believe in heaven race, color, creed, nationality, and ethnicity will not exist in heaven. Plus, it’s heaven—-paradise—-a place of bliss for believers of Christ. Plus, we get new heavenly, immortal bodies. I don’t want them to be subject to race and color or nationality again in heaven. God forbid. So I am hoping that in heaven I will not be black ever again. Don’t ask why I just want this. I know marriage isn’t in heaven, but if romantic love or divine love for people in heaven which includes romantic love is in heaven then I am all for it. I want to see my crush in heaven with me even if he did marry in this earth. I know in heaven he will love me too. I just hope heaven won’t be disappointing lol. Other than that I hope I won’t be black in heaven, because it just doesn’t define me as a soul or person.

A fun refutation of gay marriage supporters who say on Facebook: > Not too long ago cross-racial marriages were not allowed, supposedly by God. would be to say, well that's not my church so what do I care, they should have been Catholic to begin with. However, before I bite off more than is worth chewing and get my apologetic handed back to me in the form of an L on my forehead. Has it ever been the position of the Universal Church, (not just the Honorable Rev. Bigotus) that people from different races should not marry or that racial purity in humans is an end worth pursuing?

To me, it's simple that black and equal races are equal. But recently, black people have had a lower status than white people and also suffered from discrimination as everybody knows, and I'm wondering, because Christianity has been around for more than 2000 years, and these issues were among white Christians, so I'm wondering maybe what we think today, wasn't simply understood to people in past, therefore I'm looking for proofs/verses from the **New** Testament that support or oppose the idea that black and white people are equal in their rights etc.

**Origination** Someone once quipped that ***Abraham was a Gentile before He was a Jew!*** By that it was a reference to the literature that Abraham lived with his ancestors in Ur of the Chaldees. That was his native land. (Genesis 11:31, 15:7, Nehemiah 9:7) Either because of economic necessity or looming military invasion by the Assyrians, the whole clan of Abraham's ancestors moved up north in the upper Fertile Crescent to Haran. This was in the land of the Hittites, and the city was an commercial center for caravans moving across the Tiger-Euphrates valleys. So it was said by one of the prophets, "Your mother was a Hittite." (Ezekiel 16:3-4) Then Abraham moved down the western part of the Fertile Crescent into the land of the many Canaanite tribes, and became a traveling nomad there. >Now the Lord had said unto Abram, Get thee out of thy country, and from thy kindred, and from thy father's house, unto a land I will show you...and in thee shall all families of the earth be blessed. (Genesis 12:1-3) Because of this origination, it would be proper to say that Abram (Abraham) was indeed a Gentile---according to the broad definition applied to non-Jews in the world. He was an *ethnic* as the Bible uses the term. And so there was no difference between the humanity of Abraham's family and any other people. **Promise to Man** It was to this man that God spoke the ***promise of the Seed***. And it was a ***promise that engulfed all of humanity***, not just one race. Of course, Abraham needed a place to live, but the book of Hebrews explained that the *real destination of living* was a ***spiritual city, whose builder and maker was God.*** >By faith he sojourned in the land of promise, as in a strange land...for he looked for a city which has foundations whose builder and maker is God.
...They that say such things declare plainly that they seek a country. And truly, if they had been mindful of that country from whence they came out, they might have had opportunity to have returned.
But now they desire a better country, that is, a heavenly; wherefore God is not ashamed to be called their God, for He has prepared for them a city. (Hebrews 11:9-17) **Since This is So** Since Abraham is of Gentile stock...since the promise of blessing was to the whole world...since the main goal is a "spiritual city" (spiritual realities)...would this not be sufficient reason, to not only interpret the Scriptures as a message for Equality of all Races, but be a basis to resolve the messy situation of Racism in the minds---and hearts---of people around the world? After all, is it not written: >For God so loved the world, that He gave... (John 3:16) >There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond or free, there is neither male nor female, for you are all one in Jesus Christ. (Galatians 3:28-29) >For He is our peace who has made both one, and has broken down the middle wall of partition between us. (Ephesians 2:14) Could not the preaching and proclamation of the ancient promise to Abraham---without all the later Jewish legal trappings and rites and traditional customs---be a starting point, a rallying call, for racial reconciliation? For peace on earth and good will to men? All Gentiles (ethnics), Abraham and everyone else, are the same flesh and blood people...whom God loves. (Acts 17:26)

I have heard that people with black skin had been denied certain things in the Mormon Church until the past 30 years or so and that this has something to do with the Curse of Cain. What has been the historical teaching of the LDS Church regarding the Curse of Cain and dark-skinned people? What are the references in the Book of Mormon and other Mormon Scriptures that address this issue?

Our local mobile church leadership has proposed a merger with another local church. Reasons cited were a) pandemic meant they couldn't meet at the public school they had been using for 8 years so we would "get a permanent church home" b) we are young families; they are older c) we are better together than apart What are some best practices to follow, especially that avoid respondent bias? Such as, what if people are loyal to the pastor, or feel left out of the conversation, or want to ask disruptive questions, or feel surprised, or excited, etc. I have observed a church merger go poorly in the past because it was not handled well. It was a generational split. The reason by the younger leaders was that "the neighborhood is not like us" because of diversity so we "can't be effective in our outreach." The older generation wanted to stay. The merged church received the money from the sale of the mergee building. The church merged after a split vote, and the younger leaders left to join larger churches, the older stayed or left. Now a few remain 20 years later. My current nondenominational church in question, an elder model, began seeking this out 6 months ago, but didn't tell the congregation, wants to merge, and would take on the other church's denomination, Southern Baptist Convention. My sense is that though they say we welcome questions, and "our values are aligned," we are "likeminded," that they are muting critique with code words for in-group. The Pastor of my church will become lead pastor, and the new name will be our church's name. Both are financially solvent. The location will change to a different city, but about 15 minutes away. We originally joined partly because the pastor "felt called" to serve our current city. My question is for why do churches merge? Thank you for your time!

From 1849 to 1978, the LDS Church taught that [black people could not become priests](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Black_people_and_Mormon_priesthood) . In 1863, [Young](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Brigham_Young) stated: "Shall I tell you the law of God in regard to the African race? If the white man who belongs to the chosen seed mixes his blood with the seed of Cain, the penalty, under the law of God, is death on the spot. This will always be so." Brigham young (at least in my eyes) definitely considered this to be God's doctrine and teaching. Considering that this religion is meant to be God's revelation to the world, how does the LDS defend this racist teaching?

What are some of the biblical arguments used to promote racial segregation ? I am not asking about slavery or racial superiority, *per se* (see related question ), but about the idea that it is good for society to separate itself along racial characteristics and to avoid miscegenation . Answers do not need to emphasize its American manifestation.

I was wondering, since I've heard this a lot and I've done some research about it. I'd like to know what Mormons, at least contemporary Mormons, have to say about this. > Keeping in mind documents like these which I will quote to avoid > needless opposition : > > "Cain was cursed with dark skin; he became the father of the Negroes, > and those spirits wh are not worthy to receive the priesthood are born > through his lineage." > **(Mormon Doctrine, pp. 102)** > > "Negroes in this life are denied the priesthood; under no > circumstances can they hold this delegation of authority from the > Almighty" **(Mormon Doctrine, 10th printing, pages 527-528)** > > > "The gospel message of salvation is not carried affirmatively to > them... Negros are not equal with other races where the receipt of > certain spiritual blessings are concerned."**(Bruce R. McConkie: > Highlights From His Life & Teachings. Horn, Denis B.(2000))** I will now UPDATE the preface because the previous quotes were seemingly not enough to avoid needless opposition. I am not doing this to simply mock, I am doing this to get a satisfactory answer meaning truth. Quotes from **MORMON PROPHETS** that are considered to be infallible teachings of the LDS, or supposedly so, we shall see. > Because of [Cain's] wickedness he became the father of an inferior > race...the mark which was placed on Cain and which his posterity > inherited was the black skin. **(Prophet Joseph Fielding Smith, the way > of perfection p. 101, 107)** > Some classes of the human family...are black, uncouth, uncomely, > disagreable and low in their habits, wild and seemingly deprived of > nearly all the blessings of the intelligence that is generally bestowed > upon mankinnd. The first man who committed the odious crime of killing > one of his bretheren will be cursed... the Lord put a mark upon Cain > which is the flat nose and black skin. > > Shall I tell you the law of God in regards to the African race? If the > white man who belongs to the chosen seed mixes his blood with the seed > of Cain, the penalty under the law of God is death on the spot. **This > shall always be so. > > **(2nd Prophet of the LDS Church, Brigham Young, "Journal of Discourses," Vol. 7, Pages 290 & 291)** > The intermarriage of the Negro and white races, a concept which has > heretofore been most repugnant to most normal minded people... There > is a growing tendency...toward the breaking down of the race barriers > in the matter of intermarriage between whites and blacks, but it does > not have the sanction of the Church and is contrary to Church > doctrine. **(8th Prophet of the LDS Church, George Albert Smith, letter to Virgil H. Sponberg (critic of the anti-black ban), May 5, 1947, quoted in Lester E. Bush, Mormonism's Negro Doctrine: An Historical Overview, p. 42)** Here are some links : http://www.mormonthink.com/QUOTES/blacks.htm http://apostake.com/phicholmedici/racist-quotes-by-the-prophets/ http://www.mormonthink.com/QUOTES/blackintermarriage.htm https://www.fairmormon.org/answers/Mormonism_and_racial_issues/Racial_statements_by_Church_leaders Please, if somehow the LDS's official Church teaching has changed, explain in your answer the difference between the old theology and the new theology, that is a prerequisit to get your answer validated, thank you in advance.

This question is a bit related to this other question , which is asking about the curse of Cain. One of the answers in this other question refers to the "Book of Moses" (part of Book of Mormon), chapter 7, verse 22 which states: > And Enoch also beheld the residue of the people which were the sons of > Adam; and they were a mixture of all the seed of Adam save it was the > seed of Cain, **for the seed of Cain were black**, and had not place > among them. I can also see that the same chapter in "Book of Moses", verse 8 , says about Canaanites: > For behold, the Lord shall curse the land with much heat, and the > barrenness thereof shall go forth forever; **and there was a blackness > came upon all the children of Canaan**, that they were despised among > all people. And in 2 Nephi chapter 5, verse 21 it says: > And he had caused the cursing to come upon them, yea, even a sore > cursing, because of their iniquity. For behold, they had hardened > their hearts against him, that they had become like unto a flint; > wherefore, as they were white, and exceedingly fair and delightsome, > **that they might not be enticing unto my people the Lord God did cause a skin of blackness to come upon them**. **Based on these statements, I wanted to ask:** 1. Is it a belief of the Mormon church that a curse from God is the **initial origin** of all dark skin among humankind today? 2. Did God choose black skin in order to make the cursed people unappealing (as it seems to say in 2 Nephi 5:21)?

After discovering the Christian Identity movement, and investigating them further to answer another question , I've been pondering how they justify their doctrine. On the homepage of Christian Identity Ministries they quote Luke 1:68-75 and then make this bold statement: **"The Anglo-Saxon-Keltic-Germanic-Scandinavian People are Israel"** How does Christian Identity interpret the bible to justify a white supremacist theology?

While in the last few centuries there have been particularly American Christians arguing against interracial/intercultural/international marriage (I believe the term is "kinism"), I do not know of this being a historical position of anyone in the church. But I may be ignorant of a long-standing doctrine in some group or from some person who holds to a similar idea. Are there any doctrinal positions on interracial marriage in, say, the first 1000-1500 years of New Testament church history?

In Presbyterianism, a distinction is typically made between preachers who are "licensed" and those who are "ordained." One who is licensed has permission to preach regularly in a particular geographic area, but is not considered an officer of the church. One who is ordained has greater privileges, such as full membership, including voting rights, in a presbytery. In the antebellum South, Presbyterians licensed several African American preachers, like [John Chavis](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/John_Chavis) . He preached in a variety of congregations, but, apparently due to his race, was never ordained. Today, of course, there are many ordained Black pastors in the various American Presbyterian denominations. So my question is, when was the first African American ordained by one of them? I'm especially interested to know if the first such ordination took place prior to or during the war, perhaps by the anti-slavery New School Presbyterians in the North.

Attending an African American church service recently, I was introduced to the hymn [Lift Every Voice and Sing](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lift_Every_Voice_and_Sing) . One of my colleagues said this was the "Black National Anthem," uniquely Christian and a great solace in the fight for civil rights. What is it that caused this song to be so closely identified with the Civil Rights Movement, and is its theology unique to a particular brand of Christianity? Along these lines, is there a scriptural basis for this hymn?

How have the Bible's passages concerning slavery been interpreted and applied throughout Christian history, especially passages such as Exodus 21:2-11, Leviticus 25:44-46, and 1 Timothy 6:1-2? Have Christians historically applied these passages to employer/employee relations as many commentators have suggested, or is this an inappropriate cultural parallel? *Note that I am **not** asking, "Does the Bible condone slavery? " You may of course share your opinion on this question when giving your response (I understand that this question is somewhat implicit), but I am specifically interested in how the Christian Church has historically interpreted and applied these passages.*

A blight on the modern western church is that the bible has been used by certain people to justify racism--specifically dark-skinned people's inferiority and light-skinned people's superiority. Some unfortunately smart people found passages of scripture to support this viewpoint and created compelling arguments. **What are these arguments for racial superiority and from which scriptures do they come?** And I'm not just asking about slavery! For example, how did the American church support ideas like segregation and Caucasian superiority into the '30s and '40s and '50s, long after the days of emancipation?

Among the reasons given by several [Reformed Church in America](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Reformed_Church_in_America) churches in the midwestern US when leaving the denomination are issues with the [Belhar Confession](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Belhar_Confession) , a document emphasizing reconciliation and justice in the context of race and poverty. Kevin DeYoung, the pastor of University Reformed Church in Michigan, wrote: > Let me simply say at this point that our reason for seeking to leave the RCA is not one thing, but many things. From **the adoption of the Belhar Confession**, to the removal of the conscience clauses related to women’s ordination, to the growing acceptance of homosexual practice in the denomination, we believe the RCA has changed significantly in the last several years. ([source](https://blogs.thegospelcoalition.org/kevindeyoung/2014/05/27/university-reformed-church-votes-to-leave-the-rca/comment-page-1/) ; emphasis added) After giving the confession a cursory read, I didn't notice anything particularly problematic in it with respect to conservative Reformed theology. But it sounds as though I might have missed something. What is an overview of the several most significant objections to the Belhar Confession given by the conservatives leaving the RCA in recent years?

As someone who's never been to the USA I might be making a completely wrong assumption, but from all the media, it seems that the majority of the African-American population were traditionally Christian. Knowing that most of their ancestors arrived as slaves from Africa, they could not have been Christians upon arrival(right?). Was there a revival or some other major event that brought them into Christianity?

How did Christian Churches deal with segregation laws in the United States and are there any Bible passages that deals with discrimination and segregation? What were typical responses from Churches that were within that sub-culture? Were there Churches on both sides of the issue?

Slavery existed as a fact of life in the ancient world, and the Bible mentions slavery in many places. - When the Bible speaks of slavery, is it supporting it, or merely describing it? Does the Bible encourage slavery, merely condone it, or is it actively against it? - What Scripture addresses the treatment of slaves, and how does this compare with how other nations in the same time period addressed their slaves? - Along these same lines, what was the role of Christians in the slavery debate? Since the status of Africans was in many ways the philosophical underpinning of their servitude, were there any particular denominations that were distinguished in their rejection of this prevailing attitude. Put another way, are passages about slavery in the Bible prescriptive or descriptive in their treatment, and did the Bible have any discernible impact on the actual practices of Christians?