Recently I learned that there are those who teach the pre-existence of human souls. What is the biblical understanding of the pre-existence of the human soul? Is there any biblical basis for this belief?

Growing up in the Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints, I'm very familiar with the LDS Church's teachings of a premortal existence. I'm interested in the development of that teaching though. For example, in 1833 Joseph Smith received a revelation that intelligences have always existed with God. In part of the King Follett discourse, mentioned in the comments, Joseph taught about the eternal existence of matter. Then, in 1835, Joseph translated ancient Eqyptian writings that told the story of our pre-existence and the grand council in heaven. I know all these teachings and stories, but I'm wondering if there exists any deep dive into the history and development of this teaching, as Latter-day Saints have it today. I'd be interested in perhaps a book or a BYU research paper or something. It doesn't even have to be sourced from a Latter-day Saint scholar.

The hymn *I Gave My Life For Thee* has the following verse (emphasis added): > My Father's house of light, > > **My glory-circled throne** > > I left for earthly night, > > For wanderings sad and lone It appears to present the speaker, Jesus, as having a "glory-circled throne" that He left when He came to this world. However, does Jesus instead teach that He won't sit on His throne before the Second Coming (Matt. 19:28; 25:31; Luke 1:32)? Furthermore, don't the Scriptures teach that at present, rather than being on the throne, Jesus is "seated at **the right hand of the throne** of the Majesty in the heavens" (Heb. 8:1, NKJV, emphasis mine; cf. 12:2)? It seems as if He isn't seated on the throne even now but is rather seated *next to* the throne. (Actually, this isn't entirely accurate. See "Update.") Am I missing something? Can Jesus be spoken of as having a "glory-circled throne" before His first coming, one that He left behind after coming to earth? **Update:** Jesus certainly can be spoken of as being enthroned ever since His ascension: "To him who overcomes I will grant to sit with Me on My throne, **as I also overcame and sat down with My Father on His throne**" (Revelation 3:21, NKJV, emphasis added). But is Jesus spoken of as being enthroned _prior to His incarnation_?

Hebrews 1:1-2 is > 1 On many past occasions and in many different ways, God spoke to our > fathers through the prophets. 2 But in these last days He has spoken > to us by His Son, whom He appointed heir of all things, and through > whom He made the universe. (Berean Standard Bible) Biblical Unitarians are broadly of a Socinian bent, denying the literal existence of the Son before his conception, and instead holding the Son is wholly human (not dual-natured). Yet Hebrews 1:2 seems to clearly say the Son was the one through whom the universe was made. The universe was made before Jesus' conception. How do Biblical Unitarians explain this?

> D&C 93:29 Man was also in the beginning with God. It has been presented in the comments here that one LDS belief is that "*there was never a point where we did not exist. We grow & develop, but do not begin or cease to exist.*" I do not know if this is an official LDS doctrine or simply the personal belief of one studied LDS adherent. Perhaps that is question #1. Follow-up questions would be: #2 Does this belief indicate the eternal existence of each specific, individual human being or some sort of notional existence of each or of mankind as a whole? #2a Prior to birth on earth is each human being spirit only? #3 If so, was there a fixed and finite number of spirit human beings in existence prior to creation? #3a If so, does depleting this number through the process of birth on earth usher in the end of the age? #3b If not, does the end of the age leave some number of human beings bereft of a body for the rest of eternity? * Apologies if I have not formulated very clear questions but this subject matter is not something I have ever entertained before and I have tried to be careful to limit the battery of questions that exploded into view :-) An ancillary question underneath or over top of this all would be; Is there any Biblical substantiation to this doctrine in the LDS view or is this purely new revelation? Related questions: https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/62287/lds-belief-in-pre-existence-of-the-human-person-vs-human-physical-deformities https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/4620/what-does-the-lds-church-teach-about-the-pre-existence-of-each-person-prior-to-c

The Biblical Unitarian (BU) perspective on the pre-incarnational existence of the Son of God, revealed in such verses as John 1:1-2 > In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. The same was in the beginning with God. is that this pre-incarnational existence was a notional existence. A Biblical Unitarian website describes notional existence as opposed to literal existence as follows: > Notional pre-existence is the idea that something or someone may ‘exist’ in the mind of God before actualizing on earth in history at the appointed time. What God purposes and decrees is considered so certain that it is spoken of as though it already exists. My question is regarding to what degree Biblical Unitarians carry "notionalism" throughout John's prologue. For instance, if we parenthetically add (notional) to John 1:1-2 it would look like this and, from what I understand, BU would agree: > In the beginning was the (Word/notionality), and the (Word/notionality) was with God, and the Word (notionally) was God. The same was (notionally) in the beginning with God. Can verse 3 be rendered in similar fashion: Were all things only notionally created through him? > All things were (notionally) made by (the notional) him; and without (the notional) him was not any thing (notionally) made that was (notionally) made. Can verse 4 be rendered in similar fashion: Was it only a notional life that was the notional light of men? > In (the notional) him was (notional) life; and the (notional) life was the (notional) light of men. Can verse 6 be rendered in similar fashion: Did the notional light only notionally shine in the darkness? > And the (notional) light (notionally) shineth in darkness; and the darkness comprehended it not. I don't know if I should ask whether the darkness and the non-comprehension are notional as well but the above questions are only intended as illustrative. Ultimately, I am asking if Biblican Unitarians believe that the notional idea of Christ, the Son of God includes not just God's idea of an individual who is to come but also the creation, devastation, and reconciliation of everything through that individual. In other words, Does everything God has ever thought have notional existence within Logos as long as it remains as His thought? For example, Did light exist notionally prior to God speaking? and, if so, did it exist notionally within Logos?

What is the biblical basis for a "place" babies or new souls are held until life (whenever the soul enters the body of the person) according to the Bible?

Philippians 2:7: > but emptied himself, by taking the form of a servant, being born in the likeness of men. In this passage, we see that Jesus “emptied himself” and became a servant. But this seems impossible if Jesus did not exist prior to his human conception. How do people who say Jesus didn’t exist prior to his conception account for this?

One key idea in contemporary Trinitarianism is the idea that the Son is eternal. This is required to have 3 co-equal persons (if the Son is not eternal, He is not equal to the Father). Some try to show that the Son is eternal **indirectly** - the most obvious example is showing that the Son is God, and therefore the Son is eternal. Even passages which might suggest pre-existence (such as John 8:58, "Before Abraham was, I am") don't directly impinge on the idea of eternally existing. There are all sorts of situations where someone existed before something, but aren't eternally pre-existing. So, what is the **direct** scriptural evidence for the Son not just pre-existing but pre-existing eternally? This question https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/82576/what-is-the-biblical-basis-for-jesus-eternal-pre-existence-as-opposed-to-havin is similar, but too broad. For example (from an answer to the linked question), "The main evidence for the biblical basis of the Nicene interpretation is how the NT authors applied the term θεός" is **not** what I'm looking for.

Some Christians -- especially Biblical Unitarians -- believe that Jesus only pre-existed notionally/ideally in God's mind prior to his conception in Mary's womb (just like any other human being), contrary to more popular views such as that Jesus has existed since eternity (the view of most Christians) or since a long time ago (the view of Jehovah's Witnesses). What is the biblical basis for this view?

>**Matthew 22:42-45** 42 saying, *“What do you think about the Christ? Whose son is he?”* They said to him, *“The son of David.”* 43 He said to them, *“How is it then that David, in the Spirit, calls him Lord, saying, 44 “‘The Lord said to my Lord, “Sit at my right hand, until I put your enemies under your feet”’? 45 **If then David calls him Lord, how is he his son?”*** Does Jesus here somehow mean to imply that David recognized the Christ to **already** be his Lord (not LORD) at the time of the vision? What is the support for this view?