Does Matthew 22:43-45 imply the pre-existence of Jesus (from a non Trinitarian Perspective)

>**Matthew 22:42-45** 42 saying, *“What do you think about the Christ? Whose son is he?”* They said to him, *“The son of David.”* 43 He said to them, *“How is it then that David, in the Spirit, calls him Lord, saying, 44 “‘The Lord said to my Lord, “Sit at my right hand, until I put your enemies under your feet”’? 45 **If then David calls him Lord, how is he his son?”*** Does Jesus here somehow mean to imply that David recognized the Christ to **already** be his Lord (not LORD) at the time of the vision? What is the support for this view?