If the Catholic Church acquired ChatGPT, could the chatbot hear confessions? Or does Catholic Doctrine established that a human priest must hear all confessions?

Let's set some ground rules. There is no doubt in a given instance that this is voluntary and that survival is not feasible, and the decision must be taken quickly. Perhaps a platoon of soldiers in a war where one of them receives a wound that is impossible to survive, though not fatal instantly, or where there is an essentially 0% chance of survival even with medical care or medical care is inaccessible. They already know among the platoon of the intention of being part of this pact. Perhaps one of the soldiers after the war has carried it out, and this along with the general trauma of the war makes them turn to a religion, in this case Catholicism. There is an amnesty in the peace terms so civil prosecution is not possible. Sins are normal, in fact, something that all the humans besides Jesus (and Mary to Catholics), have done, and penance is necessary for all Catholics. Priests deal with common sins all the time, but getting this kind of confession and request for a penance prescription would be quite atypical.

In [this answer](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/a/19372/31636) , it is mentioned that the times listed for various indulgences > corresponds *not* to that amount of time off Purgatory, *but* to a remission equivalent to what one would get from performing "old-school" penance for that duration. The poster quoted a specific example of such an indulgence: > An indulgence of three hundred days is granted to all the Faithful who read the Holy Gospels at least a quarter of an hour.... 13 December, 1898. LEO XIII. Doing the math, this results in the ratio of the effectiveness of this Bible reading indulgence over "old-school" penance being 28,800:1, a truly staggering gain. This makes me wonder what was really involved in old-style penance, which apparently was cosmically super-ineffective compared to 19th century indulgences. What was actually involved in this "old-school" or old-style penance? To be clear, I'm not asking for an analysis of penance or indulgence calculations or equivalencies, but in what a person doing "old-school" penance actually did. What a person does to obtain a modern Indulgence is pretty well defined - say this prayer 10 times, read the Bible for 15 minutes, wear this medallion for a month, pray at least 30 minutes at this shrine on Christmas, etc. Ken Graham's mention of "Some indulgences in the 'old days' carried the phrase as being equivalent of doing a 40 day fast of quarantine." is hinting at what I am asking. What would be involved in *doing* a fast of quarantine? I know you have to *fast*, but how strict is that and what specific rules must be followed (e.g. things one is permitted to do, things one is forbidden from doing, serious violations that invalidate the penance or reset it back to zero days)? Suppose (hypothetically) I went back in time to the days of "old-school" penance and went to confess to a priest, who advised me to do 40 days of penance. Being an ignorant 21st century time traveler, I ask him, "I've never done that, what is it I actually *do*?". Would any of the following be remotely close to what he would say? - Do I have to put on a sackcloth robe and go live in the woods for 40 days, surviving on leaves and mushrooms? - Do I get assigned a set of prayers to say or Bible verses to read for each of the 40 days, but otherwise go about my life normally? - Do I have to do self-flagellation each day for 40 days? - Do I go live at a designated Penance Center, which is kind of like a modern Retreat Center, but, y'know, harsher? - Do I just mope around feeling sorry for myself for 40 days and make sure to drink fewer than two alcoholic beverages a day, except on Tuesdays, when I can have three as long as I avoid red meat for the rest of the week? - Something completely different? Whether or not "old-school" penance is still done in modern Catholicism (e.g. can be assigned by a priest, has some sort of spiritual effect, etc.) is a completely separate question that someone could ask, but it's not this question.

I had always considered that the wearing of sackcloth and ashes was a particularly a Hebrew penance tradition. In Jonah the Ninevites, who were decidedly not Hebrew, wore sack cloth and ashes per the kings order. The King of Nineveh was not Hebrew either. So how did this decision to wear sackcloth and ashes as a symbol of penance occur so readily to the Ninevites?

Most Protestants recognise only two sacraments, saying something like this (from the Anglican 39 Articles): > There are two sacraments ordained of Christ our Lord in the Gospel, > that is to say, Baptism, and the Supper of the Lord But in the Gospels it is written: John 20:21-23 > Again Jesus said, “Peace be with you! As the Father has sent me, I am > sending you.” And with that he breathed on them and said, “Receive the > Holy Spirit. If you forgive anyone’s sins, their sins are forgiven; if > you do not forgive them, they are not forgiven.” > Mt 16,18-20 > And I tell you that you are Peter, and on this rock I will build my > church, and the gates of Hades will not overcome it. I will give > you the keys of the kingdom of heaven; whatever you bind on earth will > be bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth will be > loosed in heaven.” > Mt 18,18 > "Truly I say to you, whatever you bind on earth shall have been bound > in heaven; and whatever you loose on earth shall have been loosed in > heaven. For who tells that was introduced by Pope Innocent III: Acts 19,18 > Some believers, too, came forward to admit in detail how they had used > spells > John 1,1:9 > If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just and will forgive us > our sins and purify us from all unrighteousness. > 2 Corinthians 5,18 > All this is from God, who reconciled us to himself through Christ and > gave us the ministry of reconciliation Why isn't confession/penance considered a sacrament by most Protestants? Why don't they think these verses institute the sacrament of confession?

Like crimes in legal systems, sins have two consequences: they make me guilty (the conviction) of trespassing God's law, and they involve a punishment (the sentence) for such trespassing. In the Sacrament of Penance, my conviction is removed through the forgiveness of Christ, whereas the penance give to me by the priest commutes my punishment. Thus, if one participates in the Sacrament of Penance throughout his life, and is judged worthy to go to Heaven in the Particular Judgment, there should be no need for Purgatory. I understand one can gain Indulgences for others, who perhaps did not have their sins forgiven and sentences paid for during their life on Earth. But if we pay all our penances on Earth, what is the personal use of indulgences? Is it a kind of insurance for, say, one dies unexpectedly, without having confessed some sins?

### What is "offering it up" As a Protestant, the Catholic practice of "offering it up" is new to me, although once I am acquainted with it, it seems very Biblical; see - [this article](https://catholicstrength.com/tag/offering-up-our-sufferings-for-others/) which interprets the practice in light of sharing in Christ's suffering in union with Him (*cf* Rom 8:17, Phil 2:17-18, Col 1:24, and 2 Cor 4:8-12) - Paul's advice to Timothy to "share in [Paul's] suffering [in Christ]" (*cf* 2 Tim 2:3) Other articles explaining "offering it up": - 2017 [*Catholic Digest* article](https://www.catholicdigest.com/amp/from-the-magazine/ask-father/what-does-it-really-mean-to-offer-it-up/) by Fr. Thomas V. Berg, Ph.D. - 2019 [*Word on Fire* article](https://www.wordonfire.org/articles/fellows/lets-get-reacquainted-with-the-idea-of-offering-it-up/) by Benedictine Oblate Elizabeth Scalia ### Offering it up *vs.* other suffering and works of love My question has to do with comparing "offering it up" (#4) to other 5 practices that can arguably produce merit: 1. "active" (visible) meritorious works of love ([congruous, not condign merit](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Merit_(Christianity)#Nature_of_merit) , done in the state of grace). Examples: [corporal works of mercy](https://www.usccb.org/beliefs-and-teachings/how-we-teach/new-evangelization/jubilee-of-mercy/the-corporal-works-of-mercy) , [spiritual works of mercy](https://www.usccb.org/beliefs-and-teachings/how-we-teach/new-evangelization/jubilee-of-mercy/the-spiritual-works-of-mercy) , etc. 1. "invisible" works of love we do in private. Examples: reward for praying in private *cf* Matt 6:5-6, reward for invisible fasting *cf* Matt 6:16-18, [mass intentions](https://www.catholiccompany.com/magazine/how-to-offer-up-your-intentions-at-mass-6222) , novenas, etc. 1. following evangelical counsels producing supererogatory merit (see Routledge entry on [Supererogation](https://www.rep.routledge.com/articles/thematic/supererogation/v-1/sections/historical-antecedents)) 1. enduring unexpected hardship in life that we can designate ("offering it up") as [redemptive suffering for the spiritual benefit of others](https://catholicstrength.com/tag/offering-up-our-sufferings-for-others/) 1. penance for one's own satisfaction of temporal punishment, either prescribed by a priest or self-imposed 1. suffering because of persecution by others for the sake of Christ ### Is "Offering it up" a mere penance or can it also add to the treasury of merit? On the surface, #1, #2, and #3 are "positive" in character (in that there are **no effects of sin** factor into the acts), while - in #4 our suffering is through ***no fault of our own*** (like Job's), but maybe God's way to refine our character - in #5 it's clearly because of ***our*** sins - in #6 it is because ***other*** people's sins / provocations but what we do (i.e. not denying Christ at the risk of dying, or not ashamed of being a Christian in spite of jeers) will clearly be rewarded per Jesus's own promise in Matt 5:11-12. Per St. Cyprian (*c*. AD 250), Jesus's reward for dying for Him as martyrs clearly adds to the treasury of merit which apostates (*lapsi*) can then apply toward their penance. **My related questions**: 1. Does "offering it up" (#4) produces merit that is counted to the treasury of merit similar in #6 or should it be counted only as an unexpected opportunity to do penance for the sufferer's own temporal purification similar in #5? 1. But "offering it up" in its character of *redemptive suffering* seems to be heavily linked with the Catholic understanding of *communion of saints* where we help others in the purification process. So if our suffering in #5 can be "offered up" that God then redistributes to helping others, how does it compare with the **merit** rewarded by God as in #1, #2, and #3 ? An answer that addresses how each of the 6 cases relate to the treasury of merit would be appreciated.

I watched [this video](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=YiVjwlUO9Sc) by Fr. Mike Schmitz, near the end he says that after a long time of not going, he made a general confession and was given one Hail Mary as penance and the priest said that he was going to fast for 30 days for him. He then said that this is normal and the catechism says that priests have to do penance. I'd never heard this before, but I did find it in the catechism > The Church, who through the bishop and his priests forgives sins in the name of Jesus Christ and determines the manner of satisfaction, also prays for the sinner and does penance with him > > [CCC 1448](http://www.scborromeo.org/ccc/para/1448.htm) So, does that mean, the priest keeps a tally of the penances or priests in general are called to do penance as a normal part of their duties as priests? Do priests who spend more time hearing confession (or hear particularly grave sins) have to do more penance?

Penance is a confusing term to me. It seems to be tied to confession and temporal sin but I don't fully understand it. What is Penance and how has it been understood by the Catholic Church? Oh also **Happy New Year** to all!

If the Jansenists did not deny the gratuity of grace, thinking grace cannot be earned or merited , why did they practice penances sometimes considered harsh?

The Catholic Church teaches that some might be saved outside the Catholic Church. This question relates to those, for example a non-denominational Christian that lives his life ignorantly but faithfully to what he believes is the Truth. Such a person dies, without the Graces of the Sacraments, but by God's grace alone is seen to be one of his children and graced with eternal Salvation. According to Catholicism, would that soul be responsible to pay the punishments for sin, which where not expiated during this life?

While giving a presentation on the Blessed Sacrament, I was informed that Eucharistic Adoration does not fulfill our requirement to do penance on Fridays during the year. After a brief disagreement with the objection to my insistence that it did fulfill the requirement. I humbled myself and let the person objection stand. Determined to find the answer, I can find no indication that Eucharistic Adoration cannot be a form of Penance satisfying the Catholics obligation to unite themselves to Christ Passion. The Penance that a Catholic should perform on Fridays can come in many forms, including Prayer, Attending mass and acts of Piety. It is my opinion that Eucharistic adoration is an act fo Piety. I am looking for a source that indicates that Eucharistic Adoration satisfies the Friday obligation to do Penance. Knowing full well that the preferred method is fasting, especially with abstinence from Meat. This question I believe would be for Catholics under the authority of Catholic Bishops, and may not be uniform outside the USA.

Say that a person went to confession and confessed a sin, and the priest gives a ridiculously harsh penance (e.g. row across the Atlantic Ocean), or even an impossible penance (fly to the moon). If the priest refuses to change that penance, does the penitent has any sort of recourse? Can they, for instance, get a second opinion from another priest? Are they permitted to report to a higher up, such as a Bishop?

I know we can do penance for ourselves, but how is it possible to do so for others? And also, it seems we can do penance even for non-believers, how does that work?

The Mass in the Roman Catholic Church includes a [Penitential Rite](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Penitential_Rite) , where a Penitential Act is effected. However, as the [Roman Misal](https://www.dropbox.com/s/en6h3a7awzq47dh/THE%20ROMAN%20MISSAL.pdf?dl=0) states (page 55): >51. After this, the Priest calls upon the whole community to take part in the Penitential Act, which, after a brief pause for silence, it does by means of a formula of general confession. The rite concludes with the Priest’s absolution, which, however, **lacks the efficacy of the Sacrament of Penance.** This is, such act **is not equivalent** to the Sacrament of Confession. As [this other](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mass_in_the_Catholic_Church#Ritual_Masses) entry in Wikipedia about the mass states, >Confession (Penance or Reconciliation) is the only sacrament not celebrated within a Eucharistic framework and for which therefore no Ritual Mass is provided. I wonder then, which is the purpose of such penitential act? Is there somewhere an "official" or authoritative analysis of this? Maybe by a Church Father?

When preparing for the Sacrament of Reconciliation, we are instructed to perform an examination of conscience. How exactly are we supposed to go about doing this? I am looking for a thorough, sourced, pragmatic, and detailed answer focused on the spiritual actions of the penitent in sequential order.

How did the Sacrament of Reconciliation begin? I have tried to find this answer but can not trust Wikipedia and do not need any more answers for **when** it came to be.

I'm a baptized Catholic but I have not been confirmed. I've gone to mass on and off for a couple of years but I have not compled RCIA or any instruction. I fall under the category of baptized uncatecized. I went to confession and the priest said that he cannot grant me absolution because I've not done RCIA. I thought that this was odd because baptized persons are allowed to do the sacraments. I did the confession anyways and at the end he gave me a penance. 5 hail Mary's was all. Does this mean that the confession did not count? Why give a penance if it didn't count? I'm really confused. When I do RCIA will I have to basically repeat the confession?