This question relates somewhat to the one posted here: https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/107637/are-indulgences-previously-granted-by-popes-still-in-effect-unless-specified-oth The following (which is part of a preparatory prayer for the *Stations of the Cross* devotion) is extracted from pg. 301 of [*Mary, Help of Christians*](https://ia801604.us.archive.org/20/items/MaryHelpOfChristians/MaryHelpOfChristians_text.pdf) I have long been under the impression that an Indulgence can be gained either for oneself or for the souls in Purgatory (but not both). After reading the above, I am not so sure. QUESTION: May an indulgence simultaneously be obtained **both** for oneself and for the souls in Purgatory (if it is not specified that it is applicable only to one or the other---such as, the indulgence associated with visiting a cemetery on All Souls Day.)? Thank you.

Consider, for example, the prayer to one's Guardian Angel with specified indulgences (extracted from p. 269 of the 1909 book, [*Mary, Help of Christians*](https://ia801604.us.archive.org/20/items/MaryHelpOfChristians/MaryHelpOfChristians_text.pdf) : I know that presently, the Church does not specify partial indulgences anymore in terms of days; nevertheless, I would like to know: QUESTION: If when one sees promulgated a particular partial or plenary indulgence by a Pope, is it still valid [unless specified otherwise (*i.e,* intended to be of short duration) or revoked by a later Pope?] Remark: I believe that in the case of the above prayer to one's Guardian Angel, the indulgence is still in effect for I recall having seen it in the most recent (1994 or so) *Enchiridion Indulgentiarum* although with a different formula for the prayer. Nevertheless, there have been other indulgences granted by Popes in the past (*e.g.,* Prayer to St. Joseph the Worker by Pope St. Pius X with a 500 indulgence attached to it)---that I do not recall having seen in the Enchiridion. Thank you.

I was reading [this question](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/104812/do-you-have-to-be-in-a-state-of-grace-to-be-invested-with-the-brown-scapular) about the Brown Scapular, which got me thinking. If you can go to confession within 7 days of some indulgences and the ordinary parts of an indulgence include receiving communion and going to confession (not in that order if you have mortal sins), can you start the process (i.e. make a pilgrimage) and then go to confession, or do you need to go to confession first?

According to [Enchiridion Indulgentiarum](https://www.vatican.va/roman_curia/tribunals/apost_penit/documents/rc_trib_appen_doc_20020826_enchiridion-indulgentiarum_lt.html) , a plenary indulgence can normally be granted only once per day (Normae de Indulgentiis No. 18 - § 1) unless the believer is at the point of death (§ 2). How is it determined when the next day starts for the purposes of gaining a new plenary indulgence? For example, if (this is an extreme example to illustrate my question) Bob gains a plenary indulgence at 11:59 PM on May 30, can he obtain another plenary indulgence at 12:01 AM on May 31 or does he have to wait until 11:59 PM on May 31 to get another? Similarly, if Bob gains a plenary indulgence at noon on May 30 and then takes a one hour flight westbound across the International Date Line to a place where it's already May 31, can he get another one immediately or does he have to wait 23 more hours? Yes, I know, one can gain unlimited partial indulgences a day and an otherwise plenary indulgence which fails to meet all the criteria for its reception drops down to a partial one, so Bob's efforts would not be completely wasted, but I'm curious if this is discussed anywhere. - Are days reckoned according to local law and custom (i.e. the civil time zone and calendar date)? This would mean, for example, that if the Ruritanian Parliament passes a law on January 1 at 7 AM making it immediately and legally January 2, Catholics in Ruritania can go out immediately and get another plenary indulgence even if they just got one an hour ago. - Do days begin and end at astronomical midnight at the location where a person is currently present, without regard to local custom, law, or time zone designation? - Are days reckoned per Old Testament practice as beginning at sunset rather than midnight, and one must wait until sunset to get another plenary indulgence, and it doesn't matter if sunset is one minute away or eleven hours and 59 minutes away? - Does the granting of a plenary indulgence have a strict cool-down period of 24 hours as measured by a stopwatch? If there is a more general (not explicitly tied to indulgences) teaching in Catholicism or Canon Law on the definition of "once per day" or "daily" that could reasonably be understood to apply to this situation, I would accept that as an answer. For some background to this question, there are a fairly large number of posts on our sister site Mi Yodea (and in Judaism in general) on the exact nature of the beginning, ending, and succession of days and how civil time zone changes, rapid long-distance travel, the International Date Line, and even travel into space affects time-bound commandments that must be observed on a specific date or day of the week. I'm curious as to whether Catholicism has anything similar.

> The first thing to note is that forgiveness of a sin is separate from punishment for the sin. Through sacramental confession we obtain forgiveness, but we aren't let off the hook as far as punishment goes. That's a quote from Catholic Online's article on indulgences . I've never heard forgiveness spoken about in this way. Even the site's tag wiki for forgiveness specifically includes release from punishment. I know this question is similar, but its answers don't cover a Catholic view. The only well-sourced answer explains a Lutheran stance. If God's forgiveness does not spare one from punishment, then what is it? Does this mean that the sacrament of confession alone does not spare you from punishment? Where does the Catholic Church get this distinction? Is there a biblical basis? Is it part of sacred tradition? Did a council decide it? --- On another note, I learned while researching for this question that anyone who has completed the three prerequisites for an indulgence may gain one by participating on Christianity.SE: > 20. Christian Doctrine. Partial indulgence to those who take part in teaching or learning Christian doctrine.

In [this answer](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/a/19372/31636) , it is mentioned that the times listed for various indulgences > corresponds *not* to that amount of time off Purgatory, *but* to a remission equivalent to what one would get from performing "old-school" penance for that duration. The poster quoted a specific example of such an indulgence: > An indulgence of three hundred days is granted to all the Faithful who read the Holy Gospels at least a quarter of an hour.... 13 December, 1898. LEO XIII. Doing the math, this results in the ratio of the effectiveness of this Bible reading indulgence over "old-school" penance being 28,800:1, a truly staggering gain. This makes me wonder what was really involved in old-style penance, which apparently was cosmically super-ineffective compared to 19th century indulgences. What was actually involved in this "old-school" or old-style penance? To be clear, I'm not asking for an analysis of penance or indulgence calculations or equivalencies, but in what a person doing "old-school" penance actually did. What a person does to obtain a modern Indulgence is pretty well defined - say this prayer 10 times, read the Bible for 15 minutes, wear this medallion for a month, pray at least 30 minutes at this shrine on Christmas, etc. Ken Graham's mention of "Some indulgences in the 'old days' carried the phrase as being equivalent of doing a 40 day fast of quarantine." is hinting at what I am asking. What would be involved in *doing* a fast of quarantine? I know you have to *fast*, but how strict is that and what specific rules must be followed (e.g. things one is permitted to do, things one is forbidden from doing, serious violations that invalidate the penance or reset it back to zero days)? Suppose (hypothetically) I went back in time to the days of "old-school" penance and went to confess to a priest, who advised me to do 40 days of penance. Being an ignorant 21st century time traveler, I ask him, "I've never done that, what is it I actually *do*?". Would any of the following be remotely close to what he would say? - Do I have to put on a sackcloth robe and go live in the woods for 40 days, surviving on leaves and mushrooms? - Do I get assigned a set of prayers to say or Bible verses to read for each of the 40 days, but otherwise go about my life normally? - Do I have to do self-flagellation each day for 40 days? - Do I go live at a designated Penance Center, which is kind of like a modern Retreat Center, but, y'know, harsher? - Do I just mope around feeling sorry for myself for 40 days and make sure to drink fewer than two alcoholic beverages a day, except on Tuesdays, when I can have three as long as I avoid red meat for the rest of the week? - Something completely different? Whether or not "old-school" penance is still done in modern Catholicism (e.g. can be assigned by a priest, has some sort of spiritual effect, etc.) is a completely separate question that someone could ask, but it's not this question.

Consider the published monthly prayer intentions by Pope Francis for 2024: [*The Monthly Prayer Intentions of Pope Francis for 2024*](https://www.popesprayer.va/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/ENG-INTENZIONI-DI-PREGHIERA-DEL-SANTO-PADRE-2024-DEF-1.pdf) When Catholics say, for example, a family Rosary or perform some other indulgenced work, prayers for the intentions of the Holy Father are prescribed. QUESTION: When Catholics say prayers for the intentions of the Pope, what exactly are they praying for? Is it for the **specific** intention promulgated by the Pope for that particular month? If not, consider what Fr. F. W. Faber says on p. 285 of [*The Precious Blood*](https://ia800906.us.archive.org/22/items/preciousbloodorp00fabe/preciousbloodorp00fabe.pdf) : > If we pray for the intentions of the Sovereign Pontiff, it is the sweet Spirit-guided will of the Church, which we are assisting to its accomplishment.

Is attending a priestly ordination, bishop's consecration, or religious profession an indulgenced act (pious work)?

In learning about indulgences, I started to wonder why a work was necessary for the giving of an indulgence. In looking at the Catechism of the Catholic Church , it appears to me that a work is necessary because the Church chooses to make it necessary (italics mine): > **Obtaining indulgence from God through the Church** > > **1478** An indulgence is obtained through the Church who, by virtue of the power of binding and loosing granted her by Christ Jesus, intervenes in favor of individual Christians and opens for them the treasury of the merits of Christ and the saints to obtain from the Father of mercies the remission of the temporal punishments due for their sins. *Thus the Church does not want simply to come to the aid of these Christians, but also to spur them to works of devotion, penance, and charity.* I'm not really sure that I understand this view. Of course, these works of devotion, penance, and charity are good things, but it seems like it would be more compassionate to give out indulgences to everybody so that they do not suffer from punishment for their sins in purgatory, and find other ways to encourage people to do these works. Indeed, there seems to be a similar argument in Thesis 82 in Martin Luther's 95 Theses : > Why does not the pope empty purgatory for the sake of holy love and the dire need of the souls that are there if he redeems an infinite number of souls for the sake of miserable money with which to build a church? I realize that this thesis was addressing the idea that "when the coin in the coffer rings, the soul from purgatory springs" and and other abuses of indulgences. But the sentiment seems to match the question I am asking: wouldn't it be more merciful if the pope were to choose to grant indulgences to everybody, thus reducing the suffering of those in purgatory (or empty it entirely) regardless of their works?

Like crimes in legal systems, sins have two consequences: they make me guilty (the conviction) of trespassing God's law, and they involve a punishment (the sentence) for such trespassing. In the Sacrament of Penance, my conviction is removed through the forgiveness of Christ, whereas the penance give to me by the priest commutes my punishment. Thus, if one participates in the Sacrament of Penance throughout his life, and is judged worthy to go to Heaven in the Particular Judgment, there should be no need for Purgatory. I understand one can gain Indulgences for others, who perhaps did not have their sins forgiven and sentences paid for during their life on Earth. But if we pay all our penances on Earth, what is the personal use of indulgences? Is it a kind of insurance for, say, one dies unexpectedly, without having confessed some sins?

The [*Manual of Indulgences* published by the United States Conference of Catholic Bishops](https://www.amazon.com/Manual-Indulgences-Conference-Catholic-Bishops-ebook/dp/B007TLEMEI/ref=tmm_kin_swatch_0?_encoding=UTF8&qid=1552929107&sr=8-1) states that > The faithful can obtain a partial or plenary indulgences for themselves, or they can apply them to the dead by way of suffrage. As far as I know, the Catholic Church acknowledges that deceased non-Catholic Christians can go to Purgatory (e.g. [this post](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/a/56279/14775) mentions that Anne Catherine Emmerich had visions of Protestants in Purgatory) so in theory such non-Catholic Christians would be eligible to have indulgences applied to them. Indeed, the *Manual of Indulgences* describes indulgences as a remission of temporal punishment for sins for a "properly disposed member of the *Christian* faithful" (as opposed to only the *Catholic* faithful): > An indulgence is a remission before God of the temporal punishment for sins, whose guilt is forgiven, which a properly disposed member of the Christian faithful obtains under certain and clearly defined conditions through the intervention of the Church, which, as the minister of Redemption, dispenses and applies authoritatively the treasury of the expiatory works of Christ and the saints. However, the description of an indulgence indicates that it is the Church which dispenses and applies indulgences, so it seems possible that the Church might choose to withhold the dispensing and application of indulgences to certain souls in Purgatory (e.g. Protestants who might have been anti-Catholic in life). Moreover, it's not clear what is considered a "properly disposed member" of the Christian faithful -- perhaps non-Catholic Christians might not be considered "properly disposed" and thus not eligible to have indulgences applied to them.1 **Has the Catholic Church explained whether or not indulgences can be obtained for non-Catholic Christians in Purgatory? If so, are there any limitations (e.g. perhaps only souls from certain denominations are eligible, similar to how [only Christians of certain denominations are permitted to receive Communion](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/a/33530/14775))?** ---- 1I suspect the meaning of "properly disposed" refers to the norm that > §1. In order to be capable of gaining indulgences one must be baptized, not excommunicated, and in the state of grace at least at the completion of the prescribed works. > > §2. To gain an indulgence, one must have at least the general intention of doing so and must carry out the enjoined works at the stated time and in due fashion, according to the sense of the grant. However, since I don't see a definition of exactly what "properly disposed" means I can't rule out the possibility that one must be Catholic to be "properly disposed".

In regards to the purification of the soul before entering heaven; suppose a person has a desire that is sinful and has struggled with it for many years to the point that it has become habitual. The person realizes the struggles to overcome the bad habits and prays constantly and goes to frequent communion. At the moment of death, the person receives the sacraments and is repentant of their sins; however, the desires have remained. Do the desires also have to be burned off in purgatory before one can enter heaven; even though the person was absolved of the sin, receives the apostolic pardon and dies in the state of grace? I know that by receiving a plenary indulges the temporal punishment of sin is removed, but what about the desires that have remained?

> "**An indulgence is a remission before God of the temporal punishment > due to sins whose guilt has already been forgiven**, which the faithful > Christian who is duly disposed gains under certain prescribed > conditions through the action of the Church which, as the minister of > redemption, dispenses and applies with authority the treasury of the > satisfactions of Christ and the saints." (CCC 1471) Please correct me if I'm wrong but as I understand it, temporal punishment is the consequence of one's sin. However, it is said that indulgence can remit temporal punishment.How does indulgence remit temporal punishment? I'll give two scenarios to work on the question: **Scenario # 1** *David was forgiven his adultery with Bathsheba, but still he had to endure the pain of seeing the child die.* It is clear that David payed the penalty of temporal punishment. There is no indulgence in this case. **Scenario # 2** *Nicolas was forgiven of his promiscuous behavior, but still he had to endure the consequence of his sin which is HIV.* In this scenario, how does indulgence remit the temporal punishment? ----------

Does anyone know what "_Altare privilegiatum_" means today? I mean, in former times it meant that the altar was privileged and one can get an indulgence. I also know, that for some of those altars, there had some renewals to be done by the Holy See. But what's the meaning of that today? A lot has changed even in church. Does this have any meaning at all today? If so, what's the meaning?

Luther's 95 Theses were a refutation of selling indulgences on the part of the Catholic Church. Did he, or others, believe that the Church was saying that: - The only way to be a good Christian was to purchase an indulgence - Were indulgences a public or private matter (I mean, did you show them off)? - The sale of indulgences was a benign form of alms giving - The sale of indulgences were a form of extortion by the Catholic Church - The only way to assure one of salvation was through the purchase of indulgences - Neglecting the purchase of indulgences assured one's soul of eternal damnation How did Luther's viewpoint compare to that of the common man?

We have this in our country, I googled it but didn’t find something like this, just found that Martin Luther had something to do with Indulgences. So is it true or is just some nice writing and good enough relation to Martin Luther? Rough Translation: >In medieval times, priests sold pieces of heaven to people for a hundred coins, and people bought them. > > A wise man was frustrated that people were buying them so he found a solution. > > He went to a priest and asked, "How much is all of hell? > > The priest looked surprised and asked, "Hell?" > > "Yes," he said. > >The priest without hesitation said: "Fifty coins." > >The man gave him the coins and took the certificate. > >He went and put it in town square, and said: "I have bought all of hell and I won't let any of you in." > >This man was Martin Luther.

Obviously this Question is strictly for Catholics. When all conditions are met from those being granted an indulgence, particularly a plenary indulgence for the souls in Purgatory. Is it necessary that the individual be named or can the indulgence be offered by mode of suffrage to an unknown soul suffering the punishments of forgiven sins? I have been unable to find a source for this, so by default have assumed that the indulgence can be issued to the unknown soul.

I found in a 1676 old book that indulgences are granted to the people who wear their rosary around the neck, around the wrist or at the belt. Is it still valid ?

I seem to recall that indulgences had something to do with Roman Catholics doing something to receive forgiveness of sins prior to committing the sins. So, is that what indulgences were? When did these begin and are they still practiced? If not, when did they end and why?

Say a person is granted indulgence after Saturday night mass, (which fulfilled the Sunday obligation). Does that mean he can not be granted indulgence the following morning? I'm assuming an indulgence can only be granted once a day.