Assuming not all humans on earth will become Christians. Many have lived and died that have not. The Bible is clear that many will fall away and perish. If Molinism is true, Then either: > A. There is no possible world or state of being that allows all individuals on earth to freely choose belief in God Or: > B. There is some possible world or state of being that would allow all individuals on earth to freely choose belief in God If A is true, this implies some limit to God’s power, or if not, it seems *prima facie* false. It's fair to think that there is some possible world where all individuals on earth to freely choose belief in God. If B is true, then God freely chose not to create a world where all individuals freely choose God, even though he could have. Which seems very unlikely if God is omnibenevolent. Is there an official molinist response to this?

Does the Bible contain an unambiguous statement that God is All-Good? (Note: I am not questioning whether God is All-Good or not, nor how we can indirectly infer God is All-God. I am not asking whether the Bible contains God is All-Loving or All-Merciful or All-Powerful, but whether Bible explicitly mentions God is All-Good or a term that unequivocally means All-Good.) **ADDENDUM** (In response to people wondering why I am wondering what I am wondering.) In Islam there is this concept of *Most Beautiful and Perfect Names and Attributes of Allah.* (Obviously, all of them are from the Quran.) By itself, it is whole subject of endless research and commentary. Though God is not bounded by any number of perfect attributes, it is believed that 99 of them are mentioned in the Quran. I read that even though God is Perfectly Just, All-Just (or Absolute Just) is not a name mentioned in the Quran. (When I learned why, I was most amazed.) Then I realized that, to my understanding, there is no name that would correspond to All-Good, even though Allah *is* All Good. (And I have a theory why.) All of this made me curious: whether God is ever mentioned as All-Good in the Bible. I would guess not, this why I am asking here. Finally, the answer will help me with my own research and book.

This question was brought about after reading a quote from Charles Darwin saying he couldn't believe in a benevolent creator due to the existence of parasitic wasps (which paralyze insects so that their young can eat them alive). I have to ask why would God created things like this and allow the world he created to be so awful and full of suffering. I understand that Adam and Eve sinning would lead to them being punished but why would God also make the existence of other innocent creations so awful and create living things whose very existence means suffering for others. I am looking for an answer rooted in Catholic doctrine specifically.

I'm really interested about Matthew 26:24 in which Jesus said that >The Son of Man will go just as it is written about him. But woe to that man who betrays the Son of Man! It would be better for him if he had not been born." Since this verse is talking about the betrayal of Judas, it seems that Jesus is affirming the eternal fate that awaits Judas by saying that it is better if Judas is had not been born. Why is God who is Omnibenevolent knows that Judas will be better of if he had not been born **let** Judas to be born? or How can we say that God is Omnibenevolent if He made a decision (creating Judas) in which He fully knows that His decision will made one of His creation fate much-much worse in the end? PS: This question is for all of you although I have special interest for answer from **christian universalism** point of view, hope u guys can chip in :) Thanks!

It is a common understanding among Christians I know that God has these four attributes: - Omnipresence - Omniscience - Omnipotence - Omnibenevolence A grammatical interpretation would explain them as unlimited or maybe absolute, but I'm interested in the biblical approach to this matter. What is the meaning attributed to each of these "powers" in the Bible?

The term **omnibenevolance** is not used in my quarter of Protestantism, and after reading the Wikipedia article it is entirely unclear to me what the term means and how it relates to the God of Christianity. I quote: > The word "omnibenevolence" may be interpreted to mean perfectly just, all-loving, fully merciful, or any number of other qualities, depending on precisely how "good" is understood. As such, there is little agreement over how an "omnibenevolent" being would behave. After stating that the term is basically meaningless, it goes on to note that the attribute is considered by some to be a "_an essential foundation in traditional Christianity_", then calls out a specific group as depending on this attribute for their other ideas about God's character. > Theologians in the Wesleyan Christian tradition argue that omnibenevolence is God's primary attribute. My question is two-fold. 1. First, is this claim about it being a primary-attribute true or those quotes a poor representation of 'traditional' Christianity? 1. Secondly, how is this attribute defined in light of the common usage of the word being so ambiguous? Answers may be specific to the Wesleyan tradition or delineated as belonging to any other tradition that holds this as an important attribute.