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How do Wesleyan theologians define omnibenevolence?

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The term **omnibenevolance** is not used in my quarter of Protestantism, and after reading the Wikipedia article it is entirely unclear to me what the term means and how it relates to the God of Christianity. I quote: > The word "omnibenevolence" may be interpreted to mean perfectly just, all-loving, fully merciful, or any number of other qualities, depending on precisely how "good" is understood. As such, there is little agreement over how an "omnibenevolent" being would behave. After stating that the term is basically meaningless, it goes on to note that the attribute is considered by some to be a "_an essential foundation in traditional Christianity_", then calls out a specific group as depending on this attribute for their other ideas about God's character. > Theologians in the Wesleyan Christian tradition argue that omnibenevolence is God's primary attribute. My question is two-fold. 1. First, is this claim about it being a primary-attribute true or those quotes a poor representation of 'traditional' Christianity? 1. Secondly, how is this attribute defined in light of the common usage of the word being so ambiguous? Answers may be specific to the Wesleyan tradition or delineated as belonging to any other tradition that holds this as an important attribute.
Asked by Caleb (37535 rep)
Oct 4, 2011, 02:21 PM
Last activity: Feb 29, 2012, 09:56 PM