My understanding is that the concept of Hell can have multiple interpretations. Some see it as a temporary purgatorial state or as a state of separation from god. My question focuses on Christian beliefs where Hell is characterized as a place of eternal conscious torment. Do Christians holding such beliefs see the idea of infinite torment in response to finite sin as generally compatible with that of a loving, just, or benevolent creator? Is there a consensus on how to reflect on this issue? What bothers me about the idea of eternal punishment is that it would actually be better for a person to die as soon as they are baptized, since that would drastically reduce the possibility of being sentenced to Hell. The person might end up in Heaven anyway, but getting a few comparatively fleeting conscious moments in exchange for a higher risk of infinite pain looks to be an insanely poor deal. (For the sake of argument, we may ignore the denominations which believe that damnation is pre-determined)

The claim can be found in the article [Mormonism’s Infinite Regression of Gods](https://www.mrm.org/infinite-regression) : > Tenth President Joseph Fielding Smith seems to have understood that Joseph Smith was teaching what is known as an **“infinite regression of gods.”** This can be seen by the words “and so on,” in Joseph Fielding Smith’s book, Doctrines of Salvation (1:12). In what appears to be an obvious reference to the Sermon in the Grove, he wrote, “The Prophet taught that our Father had a Father and so on. Is not this a reasonable thought, especially when we remember that the promises are made to us that we may become like him?” Is this true?

We can arrive at an [infinite regress](https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/infinite-regress/) of designers as follows: - Suppose that X is so complex that it's considered to show evidence of design. Accordingly, we infer that an intelligent designer must be behind X. Let ID1 be this intelligent designer. - We can ask the following question about ID1: **Is ID1 at least as complex as X?** We have two possibilities: - if Complexity(ID1) >= Complexity(X), we can infer that there must be an intelligent designer ID2 who designed ID1. - if Complexity(ID1) 2 must exist. But then we can ask the same question about ID2, and infer the existence of ID3, and then the existence of ID4, and the existence of ID5, and ... - And thus we arrive at an infinite regress of intelligent designers. Would ID proponents agree with this reasoning, and if so, do they find an infinite regress of intelligent designers problematic? If one believes that infinite regresses of this kind are impossible, a possible solution would be to stop the regress by claiming that there has to be **a first undesigned designer** (just like the *unmoved mover* or *uncaused cause* of the cosmological arguments for God's existence), but I think this would essentially reduce ID to Creationism. Is there a way to solve the infinite regress problem without resorting to Creationism? **I'm interested to know if any prominent Christian ID proponents have expressed any thoughts about this potential infinite regress problem**, while keeping a separation of concerns between Intelligent Design and Creationism. I'm suggesting this last requirement in light of articles such as this one: [Intelligent Design and Creationism Just Aren’t the Same](https://www.discovery.org/a/1329/) --- For those interested in a broader range of answers to this very same question, you are welcome to have a look at a [cross-posted version](https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/99474/does-intelligent-design-id-entail-an-infinite-regress-of-designers-and-if-so) asked on Philosophy Stack Exchange. Judging by the reactions, I had much, much better luck over there.

Why do theologians and philosophers suppose a connection between God's **Infiniteness or Finiteness** and **Omnipresence,** and Problem of **Evil**? Proponents of God's Finiteness (like William James), suppose that this explains why Evil present in the World. Proponents of God's Infiniteness (like most theologians and philosophers) say: He is Omnipotent, and Omnipresent, so He should be Infinite. Let's examine these rationally: Christian Scholars **usually** allude to God an **Infiniteness**, i.e: space (not matter) is infinite, and God fills the whole space, hence He is Infinite. Also, God is Eternal (infinity in time). Look, for example, **Thomas Aquinas**, on (**Infinity of God**), on **encyclopedia.com.** I searched much more in the Bible to find Verses or passages that hint to Infiniteness of God, especially in **Space and Consciousness**, I couldn't find. To be accurate, there are two passages that hint to God's Omnipresence, i.e: **Psalms 139:7-12, and Hebrews 4:13**. Omnipresent doesn't mean Infinite in Space and Consciousness. All that it may means is that the Omnipresent God Permeates His creation; His creation=the World+the Living Beings. Thus, God is Omnipresent in His Creation. Finite in Space and Consciousness doesn't mean lack of Omnipotence and Presence of Evil. I.e: doesn't justify the Presence of Evil. Those philosophers who looked upon Evil from narrow scope. Evil is required as part of involution that precedes evolution, also, it may be considered as byproduct of **FREEDOM** granted to Human Beings. Of course God is Infinite in Time, i.e: He is Eternal. I.e: He **can't**, and **couldn't** die. In philosophy there are many philosophers who assume God's Finiteness, e.g: **Charles Renouvier** and **William James.** Could you, please, give me Biblical evidences for God (Finiteness) or (Infiniteness) in Space, and Consciousness?

CS Lewis keeps calling the joy of the ressurection 'infinite joy'. I brought this up on a site (like this one) and someone replied that he probably meant it as a huge amount of joy...but not infinite because we are finite. God is the only One who has infinite qualities. After that I also noticed Cs Lewis call our joy 'transfinite'...and, in Letters To Malcolm, argue that time will not be all present for us upon death (though different) because of our finite nature. I guess we can't judge exactly how happy we will be!!!- But, well, any clues anywhere...in the Bible, in some philosopher's handbook, in Lewis....???

(See 'Letters To Malcolm') CS lewis said, because mankind is by definition finite, that we shall always be in a situation of successive time, with the present becoming past. In 'The Problem Of Pain' he says that time in Heaven may not be so much like a linear line but have thickness like a plain as well. I'm a bit confused by that analogy as that still inplies length...does he mean we will just experience 'a lot of things' within time or, erm, well, help! Great guy CS Lewis but am a little confused on 'how' he thought time would behave in Heaven.

If so, how can we agree that man will only reach the end he was meant to enjoy by achieving the highest happiness, where there is nothing left to want or can be had...if we assume we shall remain finite and therefore only recieve finite pleasures? I guess another way of asking 'how can we enoy the infinite Lord (as Thomas suggested) if we can only bear witness in a finite fashion? If our joy is 'less' how can it be that nothing is left to desire?

Some of the least useful discussions I've seen in Christianity revolve around the absolute, superlative properties of God. "God is infinitely good, therefore, He ..."; "God is infinitely just, therefore He ...". For example, I've seen friends posit conclusions based on God's all-knowing, all-foreseeing with absolute confidence in ways that make Him seem less good or just. Q: Do either the bible or church fathers offer any caveats on us (we limited beings) making logical inferences from statements on God's infinite character?