The background of this question is in the conversation Abraham and God has over the inhabitants of Sodom. God is focusing on whether anyone within the city of Sodom is **good or righteous**, God doesn't care if they know him. You have most probably seen lots of people who are non-believers engage in humanitarian works of charity that supercede those of regular Christians. If God is to use the same criteria he used with the inhabitants of Sodom, can we be assured that these non-believers will be deemed good and worthy of heaven? Jesus said when you did it to them you did it to me, so aren't these non-believers doing good to Jesus, who will send them to life?

I cannot interpret ancient Hebrew, and so this is a question about the translation of Genesis 19, and what fits most consistently with the original texts. There are 2 'clues' from the text in Genesis 19 that may suggest Lot had more than 2 daughters/children. 1. In verse 14, Lot went and spoke to his sons-in-law, 'who had married his daughters' and encouraged them to flee from the city, which seems to contrast his words to the crowd in verse 8, 'I have two daughters who have not known a man'. 2. In verse 15, the angels speak to Lot saying, 'Arise, take your wife and your two daughters *who are here*' [my emphasis], which suggests that there are some who are not there. It also draws to mind the charge to Rahab in Joshua 2, that her family would not be protected just because they were her family, but only if they were physically in her house (Joshua 2:17-18) The problem I am facing is that translations aren't consistent. The more modern translations (NIV, AMP, ESV) translate verse 14 as men 'who were betrothed/promised to' Lot's daughters (although the NIV does have the alternative 'married to' as an editorial note), and the 'who are here' from the angels in verse 15 *could* just be identifying the fact that the sons-in-law didn't turn up. I would appreciate someone who is able to unpack the original texts to provide some wisdom here, if it can be made clearer. Thanks and God bless

I think many people assume that Sodom and Gomorrah were destroyed because of their sexual immortality, and this may at least be part of the reason. However, I recently read Ezekiel and in Ezekiel 16:49-50 > **49** Now this was the sin of your sister Sodom: She and her daughters were arrogant, overfed and unconcerned; they did not help the poor and needy. **50** They were haughty and did detestable things before me. Therefore I did away with them as you have seen. It seems that Ezekiel is turning the traditional interpretation on its head, although there is certainly room for argument in the phrase "did detestable things before me". Is there any kind of doctrinal consensus or majority view on why exactly Sodom and Gomorrah was destroyed?

According to Genesis 19:7-8 (NASB), Lot offered his virgin daughters to the men of the city so they would not sodomize the visiting angels: > 7 “Please, my brothers, do not act wickedly. 8 Now behold, I have two > daughters who have not had relations with man; please let me bring > them out to you, and do to them whatever you like..." However, Genesis 19:14 (NASB) implies they either had husbands or were pledged to husbands: > "Lot went out and spoke to his sons-in-law, who were to marry his > daughters..." **Am I missing something?**

Exactly as the title says. What is the archaeological evidence that Sodom and Gomorrah existed and were destroyed by fire from the heavens (Genesis 19:24 )?

When I was younger it was quite common to hear that the crimes of Sodom had nothing to do with gayness, but was about pride, and they would quote Ezekiel 16:49. > Behold, this was the iniquity of thy sister Sodom, pride, fulness of > bread, and abundance of idleness was in her and in her daughters, > neither did she strengthen the hand of the poor and needy. Has any liberal theologian commented on that verse and the change, for example, of "gay pride" month becoming simply "pride" month?

> [**Genesis 19:15–26 (ESV)**](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Genesis%2019:15-26&version=ESV) > > 15 As morning dawned, the angels urged Lot, saying, “Up! Take your wife and your two daughters who are here, lest you be swept away in the punishment of the city.” 16 But he lingered. So the men seized him and his wife and his two daughters by the hand, A)">the Lord being merciful to him, and they brought him out and set him outside the city. **17 And as they brought them out, one said, “Escape for your life. B)">Do not look back or stop anywhere in the C)">valley. Escape to the hills, lest you be swept away.”** 18 And Lot said to them, “Oh, no, my lords. 19 Behold, your servant has found favor in your sight, and you have shown me great kindness in saving my life. But I cannot escape to the hills, lest the disaster overtake me and I die. 20 Behold, this city is near enough to flee to, and it is a little one. Let me escape there—is it not a little one?—and my life will be saved!” 21 He said to him, “Behold, I grant you this favor also, that I will not overthrow the city of which you have spoken. 22 Escape there quickly, for I can do nothing till you arrive there.” Therefore the name of the city was called D)">Zoar. > >

God Destroys Sodom

> > 23 The sun had risen on the earth when Lot came to Zoar. 24 Then E)">the Lord rained on Sodom and Gomorrah sulfur and fire from the Lord out of heaven. 25 And he overthrew those cities, and all the valley, and all the inhabitants of the cities, and what grew on the ground. **26 But Lot's wife, behind him, looked back, and she became F)">a pillar of salt.** The text doesn't answer or indicate why Lot's wife looked back, and Googling the question doesn't really turn up very much that's useful. Is there anything in the doctrines of Protestant denominations (the closer to Wesleyan, the better) that explains why Lot's wife looked back?

We all know the sin of Sodom. But my question is, why was Gomorrah destroyed? Please give references to your answer.

I was reading **Genesis 19: Sodom and Gomorrah Destroyed** and in the [first verse](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Genesis+19:1&version=NIV) , two angels are greeted by Lot as they arrive at the gates of Sodom. But instead of the "do not be afraid" speech that angels typically say, Lot offers to [wash their feet](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Genesis+19:2&version=NIV) and insists they spend the night at his house. What is going on here? I can't find a verse that specifically states the angels were disguised as men, but in [verse 5](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Genesis+19:6&version=NIV) , the people of Sodom say, "Where are the **men** who came to you tonight? Bring them out to us so that we can have sex with them." This would be really weird if the angels weren't disguised (actually it's weird either way) so I'm going to go ahead and say that they were disguised as men. Are there other biblical references where angels are disguised as humans?

Are there any historical accounts, biblical or otherwise, that shed light on what types of people lived in Sodom and Gomorrah? I'm especially curious about any extra-biblical accounts of these two places. Such accounts might shed some light on whether God's treatment of these two cities was justified.