According to trinitarians (or binitarians): How can God the Son be “appointed heir of all things“ (Hebrews 1:2) if „all belongs to Him“ already?

**Hebrews 1:2 (KJV)** says about the Son of God: > [God] hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath > appointed **heir of all things**, by whom also he made the worlds; So God (the Father I suppose) has appointed his Son (Jesus) as heir of all things. How is this possible though, when Jesus is fully God, as the OT says about God in **1 Chronicles 29:11 (KJV)**: > Thine, O LORD, is the greatness, and the power, and the glory, and the > victory, and the majesty: **for all that is in the heaven and in the > earth is thine; thine is the kingdom, O LORD, and thou art exalted as > head above all.** How can God the Son be appointed heir of „all things“ if “all that is in the heaven and in the earth“ belongs to Him already? How can God the Son be exalted if God is already „exalted as head above all“? Does 1 Chronicles 29:11 speak about God the Father or about the triune God? If it’s speaking about God the Father only, does that mean that God the Son is below God the Father in authority, power and „wealth“ so that God the Father could appoint Him heir? If so, why wasn’t Jesus already appointed heir before „these last days“?