Asalamualaikum, My question is in regards to the following narration mentioned here: https://shamela.ws/book/103/15473 Firstly is this narration authentic or made up. In this narration a man is brought after consummation with his young cousin. Yet he is pardoned for what he has done marrying her young so he has a stake on her wealth so she has no say in the future. In addition, she is blood stained and crying suggesting there was pain or harm in what he has done. Is there no empathy for her suffering? Why was he pardoned for all that considering the verse in the quran emphasizing doing justice to orphans?

In Islam what if the woman provides the most and pays the house bill while the husband just sits around.Will the child be an orphan if the mother dies or the father??(even though he did nothing)??

When the orphan become a teen does the mother and all the puber girl in house should wear hijab inside their own house? since the orphan isn't a mahram

Allah or God orphans nearly everyone. Losing your parents is one of the most traumatic periods of one's life. Why does a Benevolent merciful make each and every soul suffer this much? Forget the eternal damnation part for now, that most of humans and jinn are going to hell.

Allah the almighty orders us not to waste the wealth of orphans if we are responsible for them saying: > And give to the orphans their properties and do not substitute the defective [of your own] for the good [of theirs]. And do not consume their properties into your own. Indeed, that is ever a great sin. (4:2 ) I do assume that nevertheless if this wealth reaches the nisab zakat is a due on it (let me know if I'm wrong). Further I assume that as long as these orphans are children, unmarried or not yet able to be in charge for themselves, the person who is in charge for them is also responsible on their belongings and wealth (at least not all scholars consider adulthood as a condition for paying zakat). Who has to pay it? The person who is responsible for the orphans from his own oney or from their money? What if this person is wealthy himself is it a good deed to leave the orphans money untouched and spend for them from his own money?

Why does the famous and well known verse about polygyny starts by referring to orphans: > And if you fear that you will not deal justly with the orphan girls, then marry those that please you of [other] women, two or three or four. But if you fear that you will not be just, then [marry only] one or those your right hand possesses. That is more suitable that you may not incline [to injustice]. (4:3 ) There must certainly be a reason why Allah started the verse referring to orphans. Does anybody can explain it?