Unlike a personal loan, which is typically taken and used in need, business loans are often taken with the express intent of profiting therefrom. Often, a business may choose to go in debt not because it is unable to afford a particular undertaking, rather because the cost and/or risks of taking a loan end up being more profitable than those of reallocating existing assets. Given that a lender doesn't accept interest on the loan, and under the general principle of "Any loan which brings benefit is *riba*", **is it permissible for the debtor to actually (try to) *profit* from his use of this money while the actual owner of the property gets nothing of it?** I know that it would be possible to work the transaction such that both parties can share the profit and risk thereof (e.g. *musharakah*); that's not what the question is about. I am only concerned about the situation where the capital is explicitly a *loan*. I am particularly seeking a Hanafi position on this matter, ideally one in which full evidences are presented.

I was reading a (poorly written) essay recently, wherein a hadith was mentioned but not fully quoted. Allegedly, the classical *fuqaha* used it to forbid *bay' al-kali bil-kali* (Selling of debts for debts). Beyond that, all I know is that it was reported by Ibn 'Umar, as related by al-Tabrani (*sic*). What does this hadith say, and how authentic is it?