My common sense tells me that there must be many such churches, but I'm having a hard time finding concrete examples on the web where this is officially stated in their doctrinal statement of faith. Does anyone know concrete examples that can be backed up with references? _______ Note: by "keeping the Sabbath" I mean from Friday sunset to Saturday sunset, according to Exodus 20:8-11 (ESV)'s instructions: > 8 “Remember the Sabbath day, to keep it holy. 9 Six days you shall labor, and do all your work, 10 but the seventh day is a Sabbath to the Lord your God. On it you shall not do any work, you, or your son, or your daughter, your male servant, or your female servant, or your livestock, or the sojourner who is within your gates. 11 For in six days the Lord made heaven and earth, the sea, and all that is in them, and rested on the seventh day. Therefore the Lord blessed the Sabbath day and made it holy. Isaiah 58:13-14 (ESV) sheds more light on this commandment: > 13 “If you turn back your foot from the Sabbath, from doing your pleasure on my holy day, and call the Sabbath a delight and the holy day of the Lord honorable; if you honor it, not going your own ways, or seeking your own pleasure, or talking idly; 14 then you shall take delight in the Lord, and I will make you ride on the heights of the earth; I will feed you with the heritage of Jacob your father, for the mouth of the Lord has spoken.” ____ Related: https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/89124/50422

I cannot find in the New Testament an obligation on Christians to tithe 10% of their income. Instead I read that it is up the individual to decide: > [2 Corinthians 9:7 (NIV1984)](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=2%20Corinthians%209:7&version=NIV1984) > Each man should give what he has decided in his heart to give, not reluctantly or under compulsion, for God loves a cheerful giver. Is there a church tradition established by the early church to encourage everyone to tithe 10%? What was the early church's view on tithing?

Is there the expectation among the early Christians to give a 10% of their income to the Church?

To the best of my knowledge (which might be incomplete), pretty much all instances of tithing in the Bible involve agricultural produce or animals. Even in the time of Jesus, when money was commonplace in the Roman Empire, the Pharisees would tithe "mint, dill and cumin", as indicated by Matthew 23:23 (NIV): > "Woe to you, teachers of the law and Pharisees, you hypocrites! You give **a tenth of your spices--mint, dill and cumin**. But you have neglected the more important matters of the law--justice, mercy and faithfulness. You should have practiced the latter, without neglecting the former. What is the biblical basis for tithing money instead of agricultural produce or animals?

Tithing was known in the ancient world, adopted by the Patriarchs, and practiced by Pharisees under the Law of Moses. There was the mixed positions taken by the Reformers of Protestantism. (See https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/62509/according-to-reformed-theology-what-is-the-doctrinal-basis-for-belief-in-new-te) But has modern Protestant belief systems maintained the Reformers' positions? Or has modern research and manuscript discoveries altered that traditional belief concerning tithing? There are several old books that present the History of Tithing from ancient times (pre Patriarchal) up to the 19th century British era. [**The Sacred Tenth** by Henry Lansdell, London, 1906; **The Law of the Tithe** by Arthur Babbs, New York, 1912; **An Historical Vindication of the Right of Tithes** by Thos. Comber, London, 1682] But what would they write concerning the "next chapter" in Christian history in regard to tithing (The twentieth, on to the twenty-first century)? What is the scholarly, biblical opinion today? Is it at all controversial? Is it considered optional? Has it been replaced by "free-will" gifts?

What is the Biblical basis for preachers to be paid from members' tithing?

Many (most?) churches encourage their members to tithe (let's call these churches A), and many have a biblical basis for it, e.g.: - https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/62509/50422 - https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/87050/50422 Similarly, many (most?) churches do NOT keep the sabbath (let's call these churches B), and many of them have a biblical basis for it as well, e.g.: - https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/82507/50422 - https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/84626/50422 Now, I'm curious about those churches in the intersection between A and B, namely, those that encourage tithing AND do not keep the Sabbath **at the same time**. I'm struggling to see how this could possibly be a self-consistent position to hold. Both tithing and sabbath keeping were Old Testament laws, so if I were somehow forced to defend tithing as a law still binding on New Testament Christians, I'm unable to think of a single argument that wouldn't also lead to the unescapable conclusion that sabbath keeping is also binding. In my (possibly uninformed) opinion, if we have to tithe, then we have to keep the sabbath too. **Question**: What is the biblical basis for tithing and NOT keeping the Sabbath AT THE SAME TIME?

Lots of corporations and non-profit organizations do good work, and Catholics may want to invest in them or donate to them. But, although lots of good work might be done by a corporation or non-profit, they might also participate in grave evils, through the funding of abortion, slave labor, teaching falsehoods on sexual ethics or providing contraception, etc. Catholics who want to donate or invest in these groups might want to verify beforehand that their money will not be used to cooperate with these evils, *especially formally*, as a matter of conscience. It would be helpful to us if someone knows of a Catholic database designed for this purpose.

Malachi 3:6-12 (ESV): > 6 “For I the Lord do not change; therefore you, O children of Jacob, are not consumed. 7 From the days of your fathers you have turned aside from my statutes and have not kept them. Return to me, and I will return to you, says the Lord of hosts. But you say, ‘How shall we return?’ 8 Will man rob God? Yet you are robbing me. But you say, ‘How have we robbed you?’ In your tithes and contributions. 9 **You are cursed with a curse, for you are robbing me**, the whole nation of you. 10 Bring the full tithe into the storehouse, that there may be food in my house. **And thereby put me to the test, says the Lord of hosts, if I will not open the windows of heaven for you and pour down for you a blessing until there is no more need**. 11 I will rebuke the devourer for you, so that it will not destroy the fruits of your soil, and your vine in the field shall not fail to bear, says the Lord of hosts. 12 Then all nations will call you blessed, for you will be a land of delight, says the Lord of hosts. Many Christians believe that the curse for not tithing and the blessings for tithing mentioned in Malachi 3:6-12 apply to the New Testament Church as well. In other words, they believe that Malachi 3:6-12 teaches spiritual laws (curses/blessings) whose scope encompasses both Testaments, not just the first. In their view, Christians who do not tithe would be under a curse, and those who do tithe would be able to enjoy the promised blessings. What is the **biblical basis** for the belief that curses and blessings regarding tithing in the Old Testament still apply to the New Testament Church? _____ Optional follow-up: A natural extension of this question would be to ask the same thing about every promised curse and blessing found in the Old Testament. Which Old Testament blessings/curses still find application today? As an example, Ephesians 6:1-3 comes to mind *"Children, obey your parents in the Lord, for this is right. 2 “Honor your father and mother” (**this is the first commandment with a promise**), 3 “that it may go well with you and that you may live long in the land.”*, which is a clear New Testament validation of a blessing promised in the Old Testament (Exodus 20:12). Should we see this as evidence that *all* promised curses/blessings in the Old Testament still apply? Or should we be more cautious and approach this on a case-by-case basis?

I'm not asking about a justification or an attack on Pascal's Wager. I'm just curious how/if Blaise Pascal, being an intelligent and analytical fellow, reconciled his famous gambit with 2 Corinthians 9:7 and Psalm 50 in which we are effectively instructed not to give out of compulsion? I presume many here are more versed in his writings than I am. **UPDATE:** To expand a bit on what discrepancy I see, Pascal deduced that belief was a logical choice based on the risk of infinite loss. Yet a "faith" predicated on fear of loss is hardly the sort which interests God.
I paraphrase the verses referenced that God doesn't want "risk averse" faith.
Indeed, Kierkegaard seems to come by the **opposite** approach as Pascal: that faith does and should involve chosen risks.

What are the main views in Christianity regarding the issue of whether evangelized gentiles are expected to tithe? Which scriptures are commonly cited to support each position? Lastly, is this a controversial topic or does there appear to be consensus among the majority of denominations?

On what biblical grounds do denominations that **do not** adhere to the practice of tithing usually defend their case? What is the biblical basis for **not** tithing?

Based on the following passages, it's my understanding that The New Testament clearly supports offering: 2 Corinthians 9 (NIV): > 6 Remember this: Whoever sows sparingly will also reap sparingly, and whoever sows generously will also reap generously. 7 **Each of you should give what you have decided in your heart to give, not reluctantly or under compulsion, for God loves a cheerful giver**. 8 And God is able to bless you abundantly, so that in all things at all times, having all that you need, you will abound in every good work. 9 As it is written: > >“They have freely scattered their gifts to the poor; > their righteousness endures forever.” > >10 Now he who supplies seed to the sower and bread for food will also supply and increase your store of seed and will enlarge the harvest of your righteousness. 11 **You will be enriched in every way so that you can be generous on every occasion, and through us your generosity will result in thanksgiving to God**. Acts 2:44-47 (NIV): > 44 All the believers were together and **had everything in common**. 45 **They sold property and possessions to give to anyone who had need**. 46 Every day they continued to meet together in the temple courts. They broke bread in their homes and ate together with glad and sincere hearts, 47 praising God and enjoying the favor of all the people. And the Lord added to their number daily those who were being saved. Acts 4:32-35 (NIV): > 32 All the believers were one in heart and mind. **No one claimed that any of their possessions was their own, but they shared everything they had**. 33 With great power the apostles continued to testify to the resurrection of the Lord Jesus. And God’s grace was so powerfully at work in them all 34 that there were no needy persons among them. **For from time to time those who owned land or houses sold them, brought the money from the sales 35 and put it at the apostles’ feet, and it was distributed to anyone who had need**. Acts 24:17 (NIV): > 17 “After an absence of several years, I came to Jerusalem to bring my people **gifts for the poor and to present offerings**. ________________________ However, many denominations claim that Christians are **expected to give both tithes and offerings**, not just offerings (e.g. (https://www.daveramsey.com/blog/daves-advice-on-tithing-and-giving) , (https://stewardship.adventist.org/2015-19-3-tithe-and-offerings-it-all-about-worship) , (https://www.churchofjesuschrist.org/study/manual/for-the-strength-of-youth/tithes-and-offerings?lang=eng) , (https://www.wpmbc.org/tithes-and-offering/)) . ________________________ **Question**: What is the biblical basis for claims that Christians are expected to give **both tithes and offerings** in the New Covenant, instead of just offering?

This is actually a question that stems from some information that I found when reading this article . The article claims that Mormon Mission Presidents receive each a lot of tax free benefits, and it says the following: > Unlike other church members, this family can receive temple recommends > without paying tithing on “income.” So I looked up what the "temple recommends" are and based on this article and this article , it seems that it is a paper slip that allows a person to enter the temple (both of these articles briefly mention tithing as one of the requirements receiving the "temple recommends"). Anyway I did also find this SE question which has some answers according to which the only consequences from non-tithing are the loss of temple access and participation in some "important saving ordinances". One of the articles referenced in an answer to that question is this First Presidency Message "Concerning Tithing" (By President Marion G. Romney, dated June 1980). This article says among other things: > Tithing is not a free-will offering; it is a debt, payment of which > brings great blessings...it is apparent that tithing is a debt which > everyone owes to the Lord as rent for using the things that the Lord > has made and given to him to use. The Lord, to whom one owes tithing, > is in a position of a preferred creditor. If there is not enough to > pay all creditors, he should be paid first. So this question is about these "important saving ordinances". Does all of this mean that a Mormon who does not pay tithes cannot visit the temple and consequently will not be able to reach salvation? **Note:** I am looking for an official opinion by the Mormon Church on this matter. If the official opinion is indeed that "Anyone can attain salvation. Anyone can be denied salvation. It's all up to Our Lord." then that is fine, although it begs the question why anyone would spend their time or money to support this or any other religious organization.

Usually, in Protestant churches, the church's income is mostly from tithes and then offerings, and secondarily from any outside sponsors the church may have. I am less informed how the Catholic church raises their funds. I learned from this post that Catholics don't tithe. As a protestant, I wonder how Catholic churches support themselves. How does a Catholic church support itself without the money from Tithe? How generous are Catholics in giving offerings to the church?

Did everyone tithe in Israel? Merchants/fisherman/blacksmiths etc.? When did the tithing come into the church?

According to official policy, what happens to members of the LDS church who do not pay their tithing? Specifically, what happens to those who: 1. Forget to pay tithing for an extended period of time, or 2. Openly refuse to pay tithing. Background: I am a Mormon, and I frequently see people online saying that members of the Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints are forced to pay tithing by various enforcement methods. I would like there to be a canonical answer on this site to point people towards. I will offer my anecdotal experiences in the comments.

Most Reformed churches refer to "tithes and offerings" as an understanding of the giving structure in church. Reformed Theology as a theological framework is careful about ensuring there is a biblical foundation for worship (regulative principle) and has a strong emphasis on the biblical covenants and their historical administrations. Therefore, I assume there is a basis for the belief that tithing is an enduring New Testament establishment for the church. Ideally, this would be a representative theologian (a reformer, puritan, modern reformed theologian, etc.) explaining the basis for believing that the Bible teaches the tithe as an enduring function of the church that extends beyond the Mosaic administration. I am specifically talking about tithing 10% of the household income as a commandment of God, not the general principle of generous giving which is immediately obvious in the New Testament.

As in ancient times livestock and/or grain was used as tithe. Are there any (modern) religious laws or declarations that prevent livestock or grain being used for tithe? (I assume there are laws in some cities against walking cows down streets to the cathedral)

I understand the commandment (principle & purpose) of tithing to the Levitical priesthood as defined in OT passages such as Leviticus 27, Numbers 18, etc. But, my question is now (present day), when there is no temple or clear lineage of the sons of Aaron, what biblical proof texts do Christian (mostly Gentile) pastors use to claim that modern-day believers are *commanded* to tithe to them (namely, their non-profit organization) as obedience to God?