We read in Psalm 110:4 (KJV): > The Lord hath sworn, and will not repent, Thou art a priest for ever after the order of Melchizedek. Hebrews 6:13-17 gives an explanation on why God swore: > When God made his promise to Abraham, since there was no one greater for him to swear by, he swore by himself, 14 saying, “I will surely bless you and give you many descendants.” 15 And so after waiting patiently, Abraham received what was promised. People swear by someone greater than themselves, and the oath confirms what is said and puts an end to all argument. 17 Because God wanted to make the unchanging nature of his purpose very clear to the heirs of what was promised, he confirmed it with an oath. One is inclined to conclude that God manifested his Human Nature by making an oath in the way human beings did. What is the take of Bible scholars of different denominations, on the subject?

Courts have a variety of oaths that may invoke deity: - I do swear in the name of God that what I shall state shall be the truth, the whole truth, and nothing but the truth - I swear by Almighty God that the evidence I shall give shall be the truth, the whole truth, and nothing but the truth - You do solemnly state that the testimony you may give in the case now pending before this court shall be the truth, the whole truth, and nothing but the truth, so help you God? Some people outside of court may make an oath to another invoking God to show their sincerity. - As God is my witness - I swear to God that.... What does the bible teach about making/keeping oaths (especially those that invoke God/Jehovah/Almighty)? Related Questions: - [Swear to tell the truth 'so help me God'](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/3730/22319) - Why are Thighs important? Clarification: I'm not asking why someone may swear an oath (in court or not), just what does the bible say about swearing oaths that invoke God?

The *Civil Constitution of the Clergy* was a law passed during the French Revolution which attempted to make subordinate the Catholic Church in France to the French government. Among other things, it required that Catholic priests and bishops be elected locally (which included non-Catholics) in an attempt to abolish the authority of the Pope to appoint clergy in France. According to https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Civil_Constitution_of_the_Clergy , *The Pope condemned those who took the oath and went as far as saying that they were absolutely separated from the church.* citation , but no page(s) indicated. QUESTION: Where (papal encyclical, I presume) may I find Pope Pius VI's aforementioned condemnation of those clergy who took the oath required by the *Civic Constitution of the Clergy?*

In Deuteronomy Moses teaches to make oaths in the Lord's name: > Fear the Lord your God, serve him only and take your oaths in his name. Deuteronomy 6:13 NIV > Fear the Lord your God and serve him. Hold fast to him and take your oaths in his name. Deuteronomy 10:20 NIV The instructions surprised me because Jesus to take oaths at all and that we should simply say yes or no. > “Again, you have heard that it was said to the people long ago, ‘Do not break your oath, but fulfill to the Lord the vows you have made.’ But I tell you, do not swear an oath at all: either by heaven, for it is God’s throne; or by the earth, for it is his footstool; or by Jerusalem, for it is the city of the Great King. All you need to say is simply ‘Yes’ or ‘No’; anything beyond this comes from the evil one. Matthew 5:33‭-‬35‭, ‬37 NIV God urges the people to do one thing and later the polar opposite thing. Surely, there must be something that I've missed. I recall learning that there was a silly opinion among people that it was okay to break oaths made on the temple gate but it's not okay to break oaths made on the temple coins. Jesus calls out the silliness of that. So is this related to that in a way or the Deuteronomy one needs to be viewed in some context? **How have various theologians resolved this contradiction?**

I've become very interested (by it I mean curious) about "selling one's soul to the Devil" in the past few weeks. You probably have heard the most popular examples of this: Robert Johnson, Paganini etc. I researched a lot about this and someone told the method to do it, someone said it can be done in pieces and an answer to a question I found on StackExchange says that it cannot be done at all as we are not the owners of our souls, but God himself. So what does this actually mean? And if somehow somebody is able to do this, what consequences does he have to suffer? How could the myth of Robert Johnson or Paganini be explained? If "selling one's soul to the Devil" is absurd, then why does this concept even exist? PS: I am not Christian (so sorry if I wrote something wrong) but I believe in God and the spiritual war with the Devil.

Although the First Amendment of the U.S. Constitution declares: > "Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press; or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the Government for a redress of grievances." Christian Bibles are sometimes used in Courts to swear an oath. In contrast to the tradition of swearing by the Bible, we are told in **Matthew 5:33-37** : > “Again, you have heard that it was said to the people long ago, ‘Do not break your oath, but fulfill to the Lord the vows you have made.’ But I tell you, do not swear an oath at all: either by heaven, for it is God’s throne; or by the earth, for it is his footstool; or by Jerusalem, for it is the city of the Great King. And do not swear by your head, for you cannot make even one hair white or black. All you need to say is simply ‘Yes’ or ‘No’; anything beyond this comes from the evil one." If Matthew 5:33-37 is literal, why would Christians swear an oath on the Bible?

Several times in the New Testament, we are told not to make oaths but to make simple statements of affirmation or denial. For example... > [**Matthew 5:33-37 (NIV)**](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Matthew%205:33-37&version=NIV) > > 33 “Again, you have heard that it was said to the people long ago, ‘Do not break your oath, but fulfill to the Lord the vows you have made.’ 34 But I tell you, do not swear an oath at all: either by heaven, for it is God’s throne; 35 or by the earth, for it is his footstool; or by Jerusalem, for it is the city of the Great King. 36 And do not swear by your head, for you cannot make even one hair white or black. 37 All you need to say is simply ‘Yes’ or ‘No’; anything beyond this comes from the evil one. > > [**James 5:12 (NIV)**](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=James+5:12&version=NIV) > > 12 Above all, my brothers and sisters, do not swear—not by heaven or by earth or by anything else. All you need to say is a simple “Yes” or “No.” Otherwise you will be condemned. However, near the beginning of Paul's letter to the Galatians, he seems to make an oath himself. > [**Galatians 1:20 (NLT)**](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=galatians%201:20&version=NLT) > > 20 I declare before God that what I am writing to you is not a lie. Sadly, no reference to a cake, but anyway, it seems like Paul is making an oath based on God Himself. How can these passages be reconciled?

I know it sounds like a silly or weird question, but I'm serious. >Genesis 24:2 >------------ >One day Abraham said to his oldest servant, the man in charge of his household, “Take an oath by putting your hand under my **thigh**. >Genesis 47:29 >------------- >As the time of his death drew near, Jacob called for his son Joseph and said to him, “Please do me this favor. Put your hand under my **thigh** and swear that you will treat me with unfailing love by honoring this last request: Do not bury me in Egypt. >Leviticus 7:33 >-------------- >The right **thigh** must always be given to the priest who offers the blood and the fat of the peace offering. >Revelation 19:16 >---------------- >On his robe at his **thigh** was written this title: King of all kings and Lord of all >lords. Why is the thigh important?

I know that in court if you don't believe in God you are allowed to simply give an "Affirmation" instead of an Oath. But what I want to know is why any Christian would swear an Oath to tell the truth "So help me God"? Where did the idea that this is OK come from? I think the words of Christ were pretty clear, but as far as I know only a few denominations such as Quakers and Mennonites agree with that position (and I certainly don't see eye to eye with them on many key issues). Has there been any justification presented for doing this, or are people just doing what is expected of them from the government? Here is a relevant passage on the subject: Matthew 5:33-37 > 33 “Again, you have heard that it was said to the people long ago, ‘Do not break your oath, but keep the oaths you have made to the Lord.’ 34 But I tell you, Do not swear at all: either by heaven, for it is God’s throne; 35 or by the earth, for it is his footstool; or by Jerusalem, for it is the city of the Great King. 36 And do not swear by your head, for you cannot make even one hair white or black. 37 Simply let your ‘Yes’ be ‘Yes,’ and your ‘No,’ ‘No’; anything beyond this comes from the evil one.

When someone is deposed in court, they are asked to swear on a Bible. My premise is that the use of a printed Bible in this instance is derived from a pagan ritual or rituals, rather than a practice that the holy Scriptures themselves would encourage. What is am overview of Christian beliefs about the spiritual significance of the practice? I am in no way dismissing the seriousness (legal, personal, or spiritual) of the sin of lying; I am talking about the specific act involving putting one's hand on the Bible itself, particularly in official or legal situations. The closest question on this topic doesn't get into the significance of the printed Bible itself: - [Swear to tell the truth 'so help me God'?](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/3730/swear-to-tell-the-truth-so-help-me-god)

How does someone accidentally make an oath (an oath that they are "unaware" they had made)? Does it mean basically all careless statements about taking a particular action are in effect an oath? > ... or if anyone thoughtlessly takes an oath to do anything, whether good or evil (in any matter one might carelessly swear about) even though they are unaware of it, but then they learn of it and realize their guilt— when anyone becomes aware that they are guilty in any of these matters, they must confess in what way they have sinned. I'm interested primarily in the exegesis—what this passage literally meant—not the modern application. An oath made while drunk is a possible example, but I'm not even sure that fits. If that was the only case, wouldn't it just say "an oath made while drunk"? What other cases might there be?