What was the Investiture Controversy and lay investiture, and why exactly was it condemned? Fr. Hardon, S.J., defines "lay investiture ": >The act by which a sovereign, in the Middle Ages, granted titles, possessions, and temporal rights to bishops, abbots, and other spiritual leaders. The ritual of investiture consisted in the delivery of the spiritual emblems, ring and crosier, and sometimes the keys of the church. This privilege of secular princes and lords dates from the time of Charlemagne. So long as these princes had the Church's welfare at heart, lay investiture was tolerated. But when ecclesiastical offices were bought and sold, and free elections of bishops hindered, the Church vigorously opposed it with anti-investiture legislation, which was sporadically enforced. Pope Gregory VII, upon becoming Pope, enacted stringent measures against investiture, even to excommunicating those who continued it. The Concordat of Worms in 1122 finally ended the strife between the emperors and the Holy See. Once the major concessions were made by the emperors, the Pope agreed that all elections would be held in the emperor's presence and his bestowal of the temporalities of the bestowed office would be continued. The conflict over lay investiture reached its peak in Germany. Was "lay investiture" condemned because it enabled spiritual leaders to dictate in matters that properly belonged only to the temporal order (or *vice versa*)?

Is there any evidence that in the middle ages (specifically in France and maybe Spain), there was a wafer/bread given to the priests as a gift for the priest and not given to be used for Eucharist?

Is this true that before the Reformation, all Christians in Europe would have to study Latin in order to understand the prayers pronounced during Masses in Roman Catholic Churches?

Am wondering if "letters of investiture" (if that is the right term), from popes to early European missionaries, are available anywhere in print, or on the web? Am particularly interested in Ansgar .

The answer to this question says about the hymnbook used by the LDS church in USA that: > The patriotic songs in the hymnbook include America the Beautiful, My > Country, 'Tis of Thee, The Star-Spangled Banner, and strangely enough > God Save the King. > > Mormons have a unique feeling of US patriotism because they believe > God founded the country to provide a free place for him to restore his > church (the LDS church). In those European countries, where English is not the native language (such as Germany and Russia), do Mormons sing translated versions of these American patriotic songs? Or do they perhaps use their own local patriotic songs, or no patriotic songs at all?

Was there any person who tried converting the Catholics there?

Did common folk have the opportunity to read or hear psalms in the lingua franca (common language between church and common folk) starting in 1000 in Europe? I think in the case of Africa the answer would be no. I'm asking this because I'd like to know if it is true that the Bible or even psalms have been available to read or hear by common people in Europe/Africa starting from the time that Old Testament was first published to be read in synagogues. I'm asking that did common folk have availability or opportunity to read or hear psalms in common language starting in 1000 in Europe? In other words did they have opportunity to read psalms in common language or hear psalms read in mass in common language starting in 1000 AD in Europe?