There is a substantial number of people who self-identify as or are otherwise classified as "African-Americans" in the United States who consider themselves Christians. Were the ancestors of those "African-Americans" who were captured, mainly on the west coast of Africa, Christians when they were captured by various African and European war parties, or did those captured Aftricans only become Christians after being captured and embarked to European colonies outside of Africa?

Recently I encountered someone who, upon hearing the song "[Baba Yetu](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Baba_Yetu) ," a rendition of the Lord's Prayer in Swahili, assumed that it is widely used in the Swahili-speaking church in Africa. However, the song was actually written by an American for a video game – not the church. The song went on to win a Grammy and is now performed around the world by professional choirs and ensembles. Wikipedia indicates that there have been some high-profile performances of the song in Africa. But I want to know: **To what extent has the Swahili-speaking African church actually incorporated this song into their worship?** I realize a definitive answer is likely difficult, but here are a few thoughts on what kinds of evidence might be good indicators: - inclusion in a published Swahili-language/African church songbook/hymnal, - demonstrated use in Christian conferences/seminars taking place in Africa - testimony of a local church leader/missionary

Did common folk have the opportunity to read or hear psalms in the lingua franca (common language between church and common folk) starting in 1000 in Europe? I think in the case of Africa the answer would be no. I'm asking this because I'd like to know if it is true that the Bible or even psalms have been available to read or hear by common people in Europe/Africa starting from the time that Old Testament was first published to be read in synagogues. I'm asking that did common folk have availability or opportunity to read or hear psalms in common language starting in 1000 in Europe? In other words did they have opportunity to read psalms in common language or hear psalms read in mass in common language starting in 1000 AD in Europe?