I realize the gravity of what I'm asking. But, is God grateful? Does God have a thankful attitude toward his creation? God is gracious, but is he filled with a sense of gratitude in this graciousness? Is the Biblical idea of grace found in this idea of gratitude and gratefulness and thanksgiving? I'll provide a few verses that seem to be in context and show God has a hint of gratitude to humans: - Isaiah 66:2: God the Son was thankful to God the Father: > For all those things My hand has made, And all those things exist,” Says the LORD. “But to this one will I look: On him who is poor and of a contrite spirit, And who trembles at My word. - Luke 1:48a: > For He has regarded the lowly state of His maidservant; - Luke 10:21: > At that time he rejoiced in the Holy Spirit and said, “I openly acknowledge you, Father, Lord of heaven and earth, because you have hidden these things from the wise and intelligent and revealed them to infants. Yes, Father, because this was your good pleasure. - Psalm 138:6: > Though the Lord is on high, Yet He regards the lowly; But the proud He knows from a distance. - Hebrews 11:6: > Now without faith it is impossible to please God, since the one who draws near to him must believe that he exists and that he **rewards** those who seek him. - Proverbs 3:34: > He mocks those who mock but shows favor to the humble. - Genesis 6:8: > But, Noah found favor in the eyes of the LORD.

This question is a spin-off of the previous discussion *https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/95830/61679* . Therein, the top [answer](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/a/95831/61679) stated: > This question is answered directly in the text of the Bible. > > 14 Seeing then that we have a great high priest, that is passed into the heavens, Jesus the Son of God, let us hold fast our profession. > > > > 15 For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we > are, yet without sin. > > > > -- [Hebrews chapter 4](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Hebrews%204&version=KJV) > > The "missing link" here is *character.* God has free will, and is > fully capable of being tempted and enticed to do evil, but > consistently chooses to use that free will in benevolent and righteous > ways. In this, and particularly through the example of the life of > his son, Jesus Christ, he teaches us how to use our free will in > benevolent and righteous ways as well. To which I replied: > Then one could ask the follow-up question *"then why did God not create human beings which are free and have perfect character?"* Some Christians, such as Latter-day Saints, do not believe in [*creatio ex nihilo*](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Creatio_ex_nihilo) , and therefore they have a very peculiar way of answering this question. This [answer](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/a/95950/61679) can serve as a good example. So my question for Christians who *do* believe in *creatio ex nihilo* is the following: Why did God, according to believers in *creatio ex nihilo*, opt to create human beings with imperfect characters and vulnerability to evil, instead of bestowing them with perfect characters immune to evil like His own from the very beginning?

This question is a spin-off of the previous discussion *https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/95830/61679* . Therein, the top [answer](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/a/95831/61679) stated: > This question is answered directly in the text of the Bible. > > 14 Seeing then that we have a great high priest, that is passed into the heavens, Jesus the Son of God, let us hold fast our profession. > > > > 15 For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we > are, yet without sin. > > > > -- [Hebrews chapter 4](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Hebrews%204&version=KJV) > > The "missing link" here is *character.* God has free will, and is > fully capable of being tempted and enticed to do evil, but > consistently chooses to use that free will in benevolent and righteous > ways. In this, and particularly through the example of the life of > his son, Jesus Christ, he teaches us how to use our free will in > benevolent and righteous ways as well. To which I replied: > Then one could ask the follow-up question *"then why did God not create human beings which are free and have perfect character?"* After noticing that the author of the top answer is a Latter-day Saint, I would like to know how the LDS denomination addresses the question. So my question for Latter-day Saints is: Why did God, according to Latter-day Saints, opt to create human beings with imperfect characters and vulnerability to evil, instead of bestowing them with perfect characters immune to evil like His own from the very beginning?

Are angels considered divine for being heavenly beings? Was the adjective divine θεῖος /θείας *theios* ever used for angels? Whether in Greek scripture OT NT, early Christians or in Hebrew Bible? What is the general view on this from Christian or Heb commentators? Since, the same word has been used for sulphur, I suspect could be used for the heavenly beings as well. The question is originally focused on linguistic classification of angels as *divine*, however, I am forced to make it broader to avoid close objections. > Thayer Lexicon: θεῖον, θείου, τό (apparently the neuter of the adjective θεῖος equivalent to divine incense, because burning brimstone was regarded as having power to purify, and to ward off contagion (but Curtius, sec. 320 allies it with θύω; cf. Latin fumus, English dust)), brimstone: Luk 17:29; Rev 9:17f; Rev 14:10; Rev 19:20; (Rev 20:10); Rev 21:8. (Gen 19:24; Ps 10:6 (Ps 11:6); Ezek 38:22; Homer, Iliad 16, 228; Odyssey 22, 481, 493; (Plato) Tim. Locr., p. 99 c.; Aelian v. h. 13, 15 (16); Herodian, 8, 4, 26 (9 edition, Bekker).)* and for *lightening* by Homer. > LSJ: θεῖον (A), Ep. θέειον (in Od. 22.493 θήϊον ), τό , brimstone , used to fumigate and purify, δέπας . . ἐκάθηρε θεείῳ Il. 16.228 ; οἶσε θέειον . . , κακῶν ἄκος Od. 22.481 ; δεινὴ δὲ θεείου γίγνεται ὀδμή , from a thunderbolt, Il. 14.415 ; ἐν δὲ θεείου πλῆτο , of a ship struck by lightning, Od. 12.417 ; ἐμβαλόντες πῦρ ξὺν θ . Th. 2.77 , cf. 4.100 ; Κύριος ἔβρεξεν ἐπὶ Σόδομα καὶ Γόμορρα θ. καὶ πῦρ LXX Ge. 19.24 ; as a natural product, Hp. Aër. 7, Ph. 2.21 , 143 , Ti.Locr. 99c ; θ. ἄπυρον Gal. 12.903 ; opp. πεπυρωμένον , Dsc. 5.107; cf. θεάφιον, θέαφος . (Perh. cogn. with θύω, θυμιάω , Lat. suffire.)

How do those Christians who believe that Jesus is God and equal to God the Father explain out the following verse: > "But about that day or hour no one knows, not even the angels in > heaven, nor the Son, but only the Father." (Matthew 24:36, NIV) If the Son is God, then He should possess all the absolute qualities pertaining to God, one of which is omniscience, but in this verse we are clearly told that there is something that God the Son, unlike God the Father, doesn't know.