Who first used the term *alter Christus* ("another Christ") to describe an ordained (ministerial ) priest?

I am looking for the first extant record of Sunday being referred to specifically as the "Sabbath" or "Christian Sabbath" I am not asking which day the early church gathered. I am not asking which day is the Christian Sabbath. I am not looking for evidence of the transfer of observance or meaning of the Sabbath from Saturday to Sunday, but for evidence of the transfer of title or label of "Sabbath" to Sunday. I am asking for the first record of Sunday being labeled the Christian equivalent of the Jewish Sabbath. ----- Context of my question: It is quite evident to me that in many early church writings that the idea of the Jewish Sabbath is actually rejected. Sunday was certainly a common day of gathering and to the Jewish believers the seventh day would still have possibly been thought of as the Sabbath day. But from Justin Martyr through the Council of Laodicea a Judaizing celebration of any Sabbath is discouraged and the true Sabbath is not any singular day, but as a status in Christ and an attitude of repentance and rest in Him. I understand many may even disagree with the above statements, but I tell you this so you can understand what kind of statement I am looking for and the question can be answered regardless. At some point in Christian theology someone labeled Sunday not just a day to gather or even a day to rest and enjoy **a** Sabbath, but someone labeled it as **the** Christian Sabbath. A true shift of the same Sabbath from the Jewish seventh day to a Christian first day. Also many may agree with me, even to the point that the idea of Sunday Sabbath seems foreign or wrong. This question remains agnostic on which is right and on what the source may have truly meant. Finding the earliest record would certainly impact answers to related questions, but all that is outside the bounds of this question. ----- When is Sunday first recorded as being labeled the Sabbath? Not just a day of rest or gathering or worship. ----- ## Contemporary examples **From About Christianity website:** > Today, many Christian traditions believe Sunday is the Christian Sabbath day. **Westminster Confession Chapter 21 Article 7:** > He has particularly appointed one day in seven, for a Sabbath, to be kept holy unto him: which, from the beginning of the world to the resurrection of Christ, was the last day of the week: and, from the resurrection of Christ, was changed into the first day of the week, which, in Scripture, is called the Lord's Day, and is to be continued to the end of the world, as the Christian Sabbath. **A lengthily titled treatise on the Sabbath by John Owen says:** > And for a holy day of rest, ...he determined the observation of the first day of the week; ... > Now, as God’s rest, and his being refreshed in his work, on the seventh day of old, ... so the rest of our Lord Jesus Christ, and his being refreshed in and from his works, on the first day, is a sufficient indication of the precise day of rest to be observed under the dispensation of the new covenant, now confirmed and established (pp. 409-410). I'm not entirely sure that is how Owen meant it but that is how that part alone could be understood (the treatise is quite long, the above link is a summary with quotations). So perhaps this is a "missing link" of sorts in the direction of the earlier quotes.

***I have been given an assignment to address the view held by some people that "the Universe provides."*** My first thought was to investigate the New Age movement and beliefs but, although I found an [extensive *Wikipedia* article](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/New_Age#Beliefs_and_practices) , I could find nothing specific about this. I have an old friend who has delved into many New Age philosophies and absolutely believes that many of her prayers addressed to the Universe have been answered in positive ways. According to one ‘Happiness Coach’ you can you make the Universe work in your favour. You just need to set a clear intention and ask the Universe to know what you want. Then you just open your mind and let it come to you from unexpected sources. "The Universe always aligns with your beliefs." I suspect that this idea is not new - worship of the sun, moon and stars goes back into antiquity; likewise astronomy and belief that planets can affect and influence people and events. I have to answer the question "What scripture addresses this idea that "the Universe provides". Unfortunately, I'm running out of time and could use some help in finding Scriptures to present the biblical view. P.S. As a Bible-believing Christian I do not subscribe to the view that the Universe provides. I believe God, the Creator, provides.

I have heard angels and seraphim being used interchangeably. is there any biblical evidence that they are different or the same? The only verse I know off the top of my head is Isaiah 6:2 > Isaiah 6:2 Above it stood the seraphim: each one had six wings; with twain he covered his face, and with twain he covered his feet, and with twain he did fly. (KJV) My question is whether angels and seraphim are the same thing or not, and why.

The Bible describes the Son as "the only begotten from the Father" (John 1:14). A child is begotten only once. Therefore, I understand "begotten" as a human analogy for how the pre-existent Son of God came into existence. Similarly, the Spirit "proceeds from the Father." For example: > "When the Helper comes, whom I will send to you from the Father, that > is the Spirit of truth who **proceeds from the Father**, He will testify > about Me." (John 15:26) On the assumption that the Holy Spirit is a divine Person, does "proceeds" also refer to how the Spirit came into existence or only to the sending forth of the Spirit for a specific mission? In other words, is "proceeds" for the Spirit equivalent to "begotten" for the Son? I thought of this question while reading Chapter 8 (Basil of Caesarea and the Development of Pro-Nicene Theology) [Section 7 (*On the Holy Spirit* and Pro-Nicene Pneumatology)](https://archive.org/details/nicaeaitslegacya0000ayre/page/210/mode/2up?view=theater) of the book *Nicaea and Its Legacy: An Approach to Fourth-Century Trinitarian Theology* by Lewis Ayres (Oxford, 2004). Lewis Ayres is a Catholic theologian and Professor of Catholic and Historical Theology at Durham University in the United Kingdom. Near the end of the chapter he says: > "The Spirit's mode of procession remains even more mysterious than > that of the Son." (p217) In that chapter, he describes various views. Athanasius ---------- Athanasius argued: > “The Spirit is closely linked to the Son.” He articulates “the > Spirit's dependence on the Son.” (p212) > > “The Spirit's dependence on Christ is the same as the Son's dependence > on the Father.” (LA, 212) > > Just as the Son’s “works are the Father's, so … the works of the > Spirit are the works of Christ.” (LA, 213) Ayres comments: > “Athanasius' account is … highly traditional in its conception of the > Spirit's work.” (LA, 212) > > “Just as his (Athanasius’) account of the Son can rely heavily on the > picture of the Father as one person with his intrinsic word, so too he > emphasizes the closeness of Spirit to Son by presenting the Spirit as > the Son's ‘energy’.” (LA, 214) > > “The language also shows Athanasius trying out formulations that will > soon be problematic. … ‘The Cappadocians' will find the language of > ἐνέργεια used of the Spirit … to be highly problematic, seeming to > indicate a lack of real existence.” (LA, 214) Cappadocians ------------ “Against these uses of ἐνέργἐια language [energeia, working, activity] Basil deploys two tactics. The first is to argue that the Spirit participates in all the activities of Father and Son.” The second is that “common activity demonstrates a common essence.” This second tactic “undergirds” the first. (LA, 216) Basil insists “that while the Spirit is third in order and dignity, the Spirit is not third in an order of essences. Basil insists that the Spirit is to be accorded equal worship and honour with the Father and the Son, even if he is not willing to say directly that the Spirit is God in the same terms as Father and Son.” (LA, 216) “Perhaps the major contribution of pro-Nicene pneumatology is the insistence that the work of the Spirit is inseparable from Father and Son … but on the subject of the Spirit's place in the Godhead as such little progress is made.” (LA, 217) Question -------- So, the chapter ends with "little progress" at the end of the 'Arian' Controversy. I am not asking for comments on all of the above but the commenters asked for the context of my question. My question only relates to one tiny aspect of this topic: Based on the Bible alone, does 'proceed' refer to how the Person of the Spirit came into existence, or does "proceed from the Father" mean that the Father sends the Spirit on a specific mission? @PaulChernoch commented that Revelation 4:5; 5:6 is interesting in this context. I expand on his comment: - First, the seven Spirits are "before" the throne (Rev 4:5). - Then, after Jesus appears as a slain lamb (Rev 5:5-6), the Spirit is 'sent out into all the world' (Rev 5:6). Could that be equivalent to 'proceeds from the Father'? - The seven Spirits are a symbol of the Holy Spirit. (See Rev 1:4) - This is the sending out of the Spirit after Christ's ascension and, therefore, Pentecost. See Enthronement . So this is a sending out for one specific mission; but from 'before the throne', not from God's substance. –

I'm helping to plan a Corpus Christi procession in a few weeks, just wondering if there is an official way of doing it - or even a traditional way of doing it that corresponds to our community's fairly diverse make up, we are Parthians and Medes.... Just Kidding, our parish is we're half German, half Irish and half Mexican. Half of us don't sing and half of us don't sing in the same language. So sound liturgical advice, as well tradition would be appreciated.

In the books that I have found for Bible English translation versions, I found summarizing titles for sections, but not for chapters. Is it correct that no Bible version provides titles for chapters that can somehow summarize the chapters? Is it possible to find summaries/synopsis for chapters? Thanks.

In the Catholic Church, can a private individual provide evidence for, and subsequently request that a particular person's cause for Sainthood be opened?

What happens when a victim of child sex abuse comes forward to a priest? Is the victim encouraged to report the crime to authorities? Since this may occur outside the confessional would a priest be free to report the crime to authorities? Or are there confidentiality protocols in the church that prohibit a priest who learns of CSA through counseling session from reporting the crime?

In a debate about the historicity of Jesus, what/whom can I reference to show that Jesus was an historical figure? It seems the “Jesus as a Myth” crowd is still with us. Note: (1) I already am familiar with Josephus, Pliny and Tacitus so I am hoping for more sources that support the historical Jesus. (2) I am a believer but I want to be able to defend my faith more vigorously.

I've lately been interested in the life of the people in Eden. According to Emanuel Swedenborg, how separated is it from the life we are living today? How did husbands and wives interact? What were their daily routines or lifestyles?

We read in Matthew 22, on the **Parable of the Wedding Feast**, in Verse 6, the king's servants deputed to bring the invited, are killed by the invitees. That is not something which happens in normal course. Jesus was, in fact, referring to the Prophets killed by those to whom they had preached. One wishes to know who those prophets and the circumstances leading to their death were.

I was watching [this](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=v5_Iiks8Tr4) Shabbat video (a service to mark the beginning of the Sabbath, in Friday night), and there seems to be several similarities with the Mass rite (at least the Catholic one). (Notice the service is that of a Reformed Jewish community, and not Orthodox one). There is the introduction rite (including lighting of candles) and concluding one, singing and reading of Torah (Psalms included), sermon by the Rabbi (?), a sacred place where the Torah is kept (a bit like the Tabernacle), a prayer for the coming of the messianic age, where people get closer together and hold arms or hands (like the Our Father), and so on. Now, on the one hand, since the first Christians were Jews, it is reasonable to expect that the Christian worship be based on the Jewish one, with the introduction/modification of key elements, like the Eucharist itself (related to the Passover and etc). But also it is true that (early) Church fathers wrote against the "Judaization" of Christian practices (e.g. [here](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sabbath_in_Christianity#Early_Christianity) and more general [here](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Judaizers)) . The video I showed is however of the Reform Judaism, a form of Judaism which seems not to have existed in Early Christianity. Reform Judaism grew out of the "Haskalah" (Jewish Enlightenment) of the early 19th Century. A more reasonable question is then how Orthodox ritual practices inspired the Mass. If [this video](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=-xCupu0AJ4o) gives some light on the Orthodox practice, in the second Century Ignatius of Antioch, arguing against Judaization of Christian practices [wrote](http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/text/ignatius-magnesians-longer.html) : >But let every one of you keep the Sabbath after a spiritual manner, rejoicing in meditation on the law, not in relaxation of the body, admiring the workmanship of God, and not eating things prepared the day before, nor using lukewarm drinks, and walking within a prescribed space, **nor finding delight in dancing and plaudits which have no sense in them.** Is there some formal analysis of the relationship between the Jewish service and the (Catholic) Mass?

As a Catholic, I know that I am accountable to a higher law than human/positive law. The natural moral law is the guiding force behind the formation of my conscience and if human laws are not in accord with the current law, I am obligated to deny/change/protest/ignore them. As such, is it right, for me, to consider the moral crime of abortion to be equal in all instances to the moral crime of murder? Is abortion exactly the same as murder, under the natural moral law and in the eyes of the Catholic Church?

Simple question: many Christians believe that the Parousia (aka the Second Coming of Christ) hasn't happened yet (as of 2021). Why? What is the biblical and historical basis? What are the strongest arguments, based on Scripture and history, for ruling out any possibility that the Second Coming of Christ has already happened?

I saw on a YouTube channel a reference to a certain man that interviewed early Christians just about to be crucified. He said he saw only courage in them. Does anyone have a reference to this or know the name of this man?

My question isn't so much about reconciling specific Scripture passages as it is about reconciling two teachings supported by Scripture, so I'm asking here rather than on Hermeneutics. I'm wondering how to reconcile these two thoughts: 1. Christians can know they have eternal life (1 John 5:13; 2 Tim. 4:7-8), so much so that they can be excited for Jesus's return rather than fearful (Heb. 9:28; 1 Thess. 5:2-5; Rev. 22:20). 2. Those who sin, even unknowingly, are still guilty (Leviticus 5:17; Matthew 15:14; Luke 12:48) and are "poisoned by bitterness and bound by iniquity" until they repent and pray for forgiveness (Acts 8:20-24, NKJV; c.f. 1 John 1:9). When Jesus comes, if I can still be punished for things I've done without knowing they're sinful (Luke 12:48) and am "poisoned by bitterness and bound by iniquity" (Acts 8:23, NKJV) until I discover the sin and repent, then how can I know I "**have [present tense]** eternal life" (1 John 5:13, NKJV, emphasis added), so much so that I can be excited for Jesus' return (Heb. 9:28; 1 Thess. 5:2-5; Rev. 22:20)? Instead, wouldn't I lack certainty as to whether I have eternal life? Also, if sins of ignorance can condemn, shouldn't I hope Jesus' coming will delay so that I can study as long as possible to learn of any sins I need to repent of? How are the two thoughts bulleted above reconcilable? I'd like the range of acceptable answers to be broad, but if I must limit answers to that of a group, I'll choose answers considered orthodox within Christianity. If you'd like to list multiple possible ways to reconcile the two thoughts, that's fine as well. My main desire is for answers consistent with the Scriptures I presented.

Mental health is an essential component of a person's well-being and, as everything else in life, it is subject to a plethora of potential maladies, some of which are quite difficult to cure even for the best [mental health professionals](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mental_health_professional) out there. Wikipedia has a comprehensive [list of mental disorders](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_mental_disorders) . Some examples include: - Anxiety disorders - Dissociative disorders - Mood disorders - Trauma and Stressor Related Disorders - Neuro-Developmental Disorder - Neuro-Cognitive Disorders - Substance-Related and Addictive Disorders - Paraphilias - Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders - Schizophrenia Spectrum and Other Psychotic Disorders - etc. The secular world has devised different therapeutic techniques and treatments, many rooted in psychology, psychiatry and neuroscience research, to heal or at least mitigate to some extent the effects of these mental health issues. A few examples that come to mind: - [Psychotherapy](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Psychotherapy) - [Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT)](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cognitive_behavioral_therapy) - [Rational emotive behavior therapy (REBT)](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rational_emotive_behavior_therapy) - [Twelve-step programs](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Twelve-step_program) (which can be performed in a secular, non-religious way, see e.g. [12 step programs for atheists](https://www.12step.com/articles/12-step-programs-for-atheists)) - [Antidepressants](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Antidepressant) - [Psychedelic therapy](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Psychedelic_therapy) - etc. Of course, no amount of concerted secular human effort can even come close to the supernatural effectiveness of the Holy Spirit, who (or which, for the non-Trinitarians) should be more than capable of restoring a person's mental health instantly, miraculously, even in the face of the most challenging mental disorders for modern science. **Is this, actually, the case?** **Question**: Is there any evidence that people are actually getting healed of very severe mental health disorders in contexts where the Holy Spirit is believed to move more (e.g., in Church services), at a rate significantly higher than in secular settings, even when all the options in terms of secular treatments and therapies have been exhausted and tried? ____ Related C.SE questions: - https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/78911/50422 - https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/80809/50422 - https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/50329/50422 Related Psychology.SE question: - [Can someone be healed from a long-held addiction or compulsive disorder in an instant and without therapy due to a dramatic spiritual experience?](https://psychology.stackexchange.com/q/25058/25376)

Are these synonymous? My question is based on the point of already being a Christian. I’m open to any ideas and eager to hear them. Please note, I’m not looking for definitions of these terms. I’ve read many from various sources, and they are so minute that it renders them nearly identical. I am asking if the idea of relationship and fellowship (with God) is the same? If not, what are the differences? Does exegesis of biblical ideas exists, and if so what is the term for it? Of course any Bible verses that detail the differences in meaning of these ideas would be extremely helpful. I don’t know enough about Greek to figure that out on my own. I’m not asking out of mere curiosity, I’m studying to learn about these things for my personal growth.

My fiancee and I are not believers or members of any Christian church. Consequently, we are planning a civil wedding ceremony. That said, our parents and most of our guests are either Catholic or identify as Christian. To make our guests comfortable, we thought of inviting a Catholic priest or minister of some other Christian denomination to preach. Google makes clear that Catholic priests aren't allowed to officiate at weddings where neither party is Catholic and the wedding takes place outside a Catholic church, and I expect most other churches follow similar restrictions. What's less clear is whether a Christian minister is allowed to *preach* at a civil wedding. From what I understand, ministers are allowed to preach anywhere to anyone and have a Biblical mandate to do so when given the opportunity. So would a Christian minister be allowed to preach at a civil wedding if somebody else officiated?