This question is in the context of Protestant Trinitarianism. There are two schools of thought within Protestant Trinitarianism : one, founded mainly in the Westminster Confession (or Savoy Declaration) which accepts that 'the Law is a rule of life for the Christian' and looks to the commandments (whether an expansion of ten, or whether two or whether one) as the 'Law' by which the Christian is to live. This school of thought can be seen set forth in the Westminster Confession The other school of thought accepts that salvation is by grace and that the Christian is 'freed from law' (that is to say, not just 'ceremonial law' but *all law*). The 'rule of the Spirit' is just that, they say - a governance of the Holy Spirit who brings the things of Christ and ministers them to the soul, whereby the believer receives the 'shedding abroad of the love of God' and is kept, in Spirit, walking in holiness by means of faith in Christ. This school of thought can be seen set forth in the pages of The Gospel Standard . I am interested in what the former school of thought teach, regarding Titus 2: 11-14 : >For the grace of God that bringeth salvation hath appeared to all men, (12) Teaching us that, denying ungodliness and worldly lusts, we should live soberly, righteously, and godly, in this present world; (13) Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ; (14) Who gave himself for us, that he might redeem us from all iniquity, and purify unto himself a peculiar people, zealous of good works. There is no mention in these few verses of the Law being administered in order to achieve either holiness or preparation for the last day. The latter school of thought hold that the 'grace of God' refers to the Holy Spirit and that his ministrations result in sanctification. What, I would like to know, is the teaching of those who suggest that Christians are 'under the Law' (and the Westminster Confession states that this is as 'advice') in regard to these verses. Whose, exactly, is the 'grace' referred to ? And why, would they say, is Law completely missing from these exhortatory verses ?

There is a question asking how non-trinitarians explain Isaiah 43:11, but this one seeks trinitarian explanation as connected to other verses in Titus. > “Before me there was no God formed, neither shall there be after me. > 11 I, even I, am the Lord; and ***beside me there is no saviour***.” > Isaiah 43:11 A.V. [Emphasis mine] > > “…according to the commandment of ***God our Saviour***… Grace, mercy and > peace, from God the Father and the Lord Jesus ***Christ our Saviour***.” > Titus 1:3 & 4 A.V. [Emphasis mine] The query is, **who has the divine role of being Saviour? In Isaiah it is Yahweh, and only him. In Titus it is both God and Jesus Christ.** It appears that there cannot be two Saviours (according to Isaiah). So, why does Titus say what it says? (Both God and Jesus Christ are – again – designated ‘Saviour’ in Titus 2:13 & 3:4 – repetition for emphasis; so, in this letter to Titus there has not been a scribal error. Both sets of statements in Titus agree.) However, the question is not a hermeneutic one regarding Greek language in Titus; it is about ***how the claims in Titus can stand in view of Isaiah 43:11 categorically stating that only God is Saviour.*** How do Trinitarians explain this?

> [1 Timothy 1:3, KJV](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1+timothy+1:3&version=KJV)
> As I besought thee to abide still at Ephesus, when I went into > Macedonia, that thou mightest charge some that they teach no other > doctrine > > [Titus 1:5, KJV](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Titus+1:5&version=KJV)
> For this cause left I thee in Crete, that thou shouldest set in order > the things that are wanting, and ordain elders in every city, as I had > appointed thee These two verses seem to indicate a certain "hierarchy layer" between elders and apostles. Paul is clearly an apostle and he appoints Titus to ordain elders in every city of the island of Crete. On one hand, Titus was appointed by Paul, which means that Titus is in position of submission to Paul the Apostle. However, Titus has the power to ordain elders in cities of Crete, which means that those elders would be in position of submission to Titus. Thus, we have the following structure: elders -> Titus -> apostles. I wonder how those Christian groups that deny any such hierarchy levels in their governance—for example, Congregationalists—explain these verses.

2 Peter 1:1 says > "Simon Peter, a servant and apostle of Jesus Christ, To those who > through the righteousness of our God and Savior Jesus Christ have > received a faith as precious as ours" (Berean Study Bible) Similarly, Titus 2:13 says > "as we await the blessed hope and glorious appearance of our great God > and Savior Jesus Christ." (Berean Study Bible) How do Biblical Unitarians respond to these passages?

Paul says to avoid quarreling in his letters to Titus. Have Christians failed at this, considering we have 45,000 denominations ? >**9**But avoid foolish controversies and genealogies and arguments and quarrels about the law, because these are unprofitable and useless. **10**Warn a divisive person once, and then warn him a second time. After that, have nothing to do with him. **11**You may be sure that such a man is warped and sinful; he is self-condemned. - (Titus 3:9-11) NIV

Titus 2:11 says > For the grace of God that bringeth salvation hath appeared to all men... How does this fit with Irresistible Grace? From my understanding of Irresistible Grace, when God's grace that brings salvation appears to someone, they cannot resist and they are saved (whether against their will, or that the are unable to resist and their will is changed so it is their will, may not be relevant) I have consulted ESV Global Commentary, Matthew Henry Commentary, and Calvin's commentary for the verse, but have found nothing concerning this doctrine. How is this passage understood along with Irresistible Grace?

Evangelicals believe that faith alone establishes your salvation. How do they resolve **Titus 1:16**? >They profess that they know God; but in works they deny him, being abominable, and disobedient, and unto every good work reprobate. While I understand that evangelicals don't directly recommend doing abominable, disobedient and reprobating good work - they also generally don't believe that you can lose your salvation, which this passage seems to imply.

In Paul's epistle to Titus in the third Chapter verses 4 through 7, He is relaying to Titus the change the grace of God makes through Salvation. In verse 5 he states that "he saved us, by the washing of regeneration, and renewing of the Holy Ghost;" Titus 3:4 through 7 >4 But after that the kindness and love of God our Saviour toward man appeared, > >5 Not by works of righteousness which we have done, ***but according to his mercy he saved us, by the washing of regeneration, and renewing of the Holy Ghost;*** > >6 Which he shed on us abundantly through Jesus Christ our Saviour; > >7 That being justified by his grace, we should be made heirs according to the hope of eternal life. To what is Paul referring when he says the renewing of the Holy Ghost?