Jesus is reported as mixing with sinners and eating with them in Luke 15:2. The RSV and KJV say this was “murmured”, which I take to show that those stating this fact were complaining, or – worse – sneering. This question wants to explore (1) how persons who knew themselves to be sinners would have felt, that: “This man receives sinners and eats with them”. Then, (2) how might that contrast with what the people who murmured that fact thought of themselves with regard to sin. Finally, For both groups, (3) how would their view of salvation affect their response to what Jesus did? I’m *not* looking for a hermeneutic-type answer because this question asks whether the unspoken implication that the murmurers had was a view of themselves that meant they did not view themselves as ‘sinners’. There are many Bible texts that deal with this matter of different views of what it is to be a sinner, not just the one I gave as an example. Nor do I want the parables Jesus gave after others said he ‘receives sinners and eats with them’ to be explored. **The question is not about what Jesus said, but about what others said of him. Did they say it invidiously, with ill will, and being offended? If so, why?** ***I wanted to avoided the general tag of ‘sin’*** and use ‘sinners’ and ‘sinless’, plus ‘salvation’, all of which are listed as possible tags. Unfortunately, the sinner tag only gives, 'sinners-prayer' which is ***not*** what I'm after. It only gives 'sin' which is ***not*** the same as sinlessness. It only gives 'assurance of salvation', **which is *not* what I'm after**. *The tags will turn out to be worse than useless if people just look at them and launch into that.* This is a topic about sinners compared with those who view themselves as sinless, and all with regard to salvation. I address this to those in the Reformed, Protestant, Evangelical category, noting that some may not identify themselves with any particular denomination, but be evangelical Protestants nevertheless.

Where did the idea of "asking Jesus into your heart" come from? That figure of speech is not explicitly from the bible or probably even early church history. Can anyone find its first use and maybe why it's become so pervasive? I'm looking for something like "Pastor John Smith used the saying once at a conference in 1850" or something like that. I can assume that people use the bible to come up with this phrase. I'm wondering more about the historical origin of its usage.

I came across ***a similar question*** asking about the Protestant view that when you first believe on Jesus Christ you become a Born Again Christian. Here is the link to the question: https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/50206/how-did-the-born-again-teaching-be-associated-with-one-first-believing-in-jesus/72288#72288 Please note that I am ***not*** asking about how a Christian is born-again. I am asking about the claim that Protestants think if you say "the Sinner’s Prayer” then you become a Christian. I’ve been a Protestant for a long time but have never subscribed to any notion that simply repeating some words will automatically make a person a Christian. That is clearly unbiblical because there must be evidence of a life transformed by the Holy Spirit at work in the believer. >"Therefore, if anyone is in Christ, he is a new creation: the old has gone, the new has come!" (2 Corinthians 5:17). My understanding is that it is the Holy Spirit who convicts sinners of their need to repent and turn, in faith, to what God has done, in Christ Jesus, and seek forgiveness. A “Prayer of Repentance” might better express what sinners need to do in order to be saved. It seems to me that there are some commonly held misconceptions about this “Sinner’s Prayer”. My question is therefore aimed at Protestants in order to give them an opportunity to clear up any misunderstandings and to show, from the Bible, what it is that makes a person a Christian.