I know similar questions have been asked on this topic, but my question is a bit more semantic in nature. Relative to the answers this is generating, I feel that I must have inadequately articulated my question, so I’m editing it to ensure the correct question is being understood and answered. The question in its simplest form is whether the Jubilee was *counted* in 49-year increments or 50-year increments, but not *whether* it was 49 or 50 years. In other words, what I am hoping to discover is *not* how Jubilees were reckoned, but how the cycle was *counted*. And this is germane to Ezekiel 1:1–2. > Now it came to pass in the thirtieth year, in the fourth month, in the > fifth day of the month, as I was among the captives by the river of > Chebar, that the heavens were opened, and I saw visions of God. In the > fifth day of the month, which was the fifth year of king Jehoiachin's > captivity [...] (Ezek. 1:1–2) In consideration of all the contemporary kings of both Judah and Babylon, the year of the captivity, and when the city was destroyed, this reference to the “thirtieth year” can be to no other epoch than the Jubilee cycle. The Jubilee cycle overlapped the Sabbatical year cycle. The specific instruction for the Jubilee was to count seven Sabbatical cycles, equaling 49 years, and then hallow the 50th year. If the Jubilee is in the 1st year of the new cycle (49 years, and then the 50th year following it), it results in two consecutive years where no sowing or reaping of the land was permitted. Since provisions for one fallow year are provided, one would certainly expect provisions for *two* fallow years to be addressed. But no such provision is provided, negating this as their likely method. To remain in lock-step with the Sabbatical cycles, it has to overlap the 49th year rather than the first. So, the 49th year is also the 50th inclusive year from the previous Jubilee. This keeps the Jubilee synchronized with the Sabbatical cycle, and prevents two consecutive fallow years of no sowing or reaping. In which case, year 49 is the 49th year of the Sabbatical year cycle count, the 50th year inclusively from the previous Jubilee, and the 1st year of the new inclusive count towards the next Jubilee. So, the seventh Sabbatical year is year 49, 50, and 1 simultaneously. Ergo, I am not asking how Jubilees are reckoned. I do understand the intricacies of the cycle. What I want to know is whether they were counting 49 years or 50. When Ezekiel says that it was the thirtieth year, did he mean that it was the thirtieth year of a forty-nine-year count, or the thirtieth year of a fifty-year count? If he’s counting 50 years from the actual year of the Jubilees to the next Jubilee, then the 30th year of that count is going to be different by one year compared to counting 49 years from the first year of the new Sabbatical year cycle. The answer to this question also affects where the Jubilees following and preceding should fall. If the 30th year is incorrectly displaced, it affects where the upcoming Jubilee falls. And counting backwards, we don’t know if we should be counting back to year 1, which is year 49, or if we should be counting back to year 1, which is year 1 of the first Sabbatical cycle. SO! I’m asking for logical arguments on whether they were doing a 49-year count, and reckoning the 50th year inclusively from the previous Jubilee on the 49th year, or if they were doing an actual 50-year count from Jubilee to Jubilee, using the Jubilee cycle as an epoch. Scripturally, it would seem that a 49-year count is correct, per Leviticus 25:8–10. Just count 49 years, and hallow the 50th year (inclusive, from Jubilee to Jubilee). > And thou shalt number seven sabbaths of years unto thee, seven times > seven years; and the space of the seven sabbaths of years shall be > unto thee forty and nine years. Then shalt thou cause the trumpet of > the jubile to sound on the tenth day of the seventh month, in the day > of atonement shall ye make the trumpet sound throughout all your land. > And ye shall hallow the fiftieth year, and proclaim liberty throughout > all the land unto all the inhabitants thereof: it shall be a jubile > unto you — (Lev. 25:8–10) | Sabbatical Yr. | Running Cnt. | Jubilee Yr. | | --- | --- | --- | | 7 | 49 | 50/1 | | 1 | 1 | 2 | | 2 | 2 | 3 | | 3 | 3 | 4 | | 4 | 4 | 5 | | 5 | 5 | 6 | | 6 | 6 | 7 | | 7 | 7 | 8 | | 1 | 8 | 9 | | 2 | 9 | 10 | | 3 | 10 | 11 | | 4 | 11 | 12 | | 5 | 12 | 13 | | 6 | 13 | 14 | | 7 | 14 | 15 | | 1 | 15 | 16 | | 2 | 16 | 17 | | 3 | 17 | 18 | | 4 | 18 | 19 | | 5 | 19 | 20 | | 6 | 20 | 21 | | 7 | 21 | 22 | | 1 | 22 | 23 | | 2 | 23 | 24 | | 3 | 24 | 25 | | 4 | 25 | 26 | | 5 | 26 | 27 | | 6 | 27 | 28 | | 7 | 28 | 29 | | 1 | 29 | **30** | | 2 | **30** | 31 | | 3 | 31 | 32 | | 4 | 32 | 33 | | 5 | 33 | 34 | | 6 | 34 | 35 | | 7 | 35 | 36 | | 1 | 36 | 37 | | 2 | 37 | 38 | | 3 | 38 | 39 | | 4 | 39 | 40 | | 5 | 40 | 41 | | 6 | 41 | 42 | | 7 | 42 | 43 | | 1 | 43 | 44 | | 2 | 44 | 45 | | 3 | 45 | 46 | | 4 | 46 | 47 | | 5 | 47 | 48 | | 6 | 48 | 49 | | 7 | 49 | 50/1 | While Ezekiel's "thirtieth year" may be a fixed point, determining precisely when the Jubilee occurred is directly relative to whether he's in the thirtieth year of a forty-nine-year count, or a fifty-year count. I would say that we can simply use the other surrounding context, but there are debates over whether Ezekiel is counting reigns, years of captivity, years from the destruction of Jerusalem, etc., from Nisan to Nisan or Tishri to Tishri. Depending on which counting method you use in that particular regard, it alters the results. This question also applies retrospectively to the reign of Josiah. It is alleged that the Talmud (bArak. 12a–b, 33a, bMeg. 14b) puts the start of a Jubilee in the eighteenth year of Josiah (personally, I think the text suggests that it was *not* the Jubilee, but that's another problem for another day). Whether the count is forty-nine years with the fiftieth merely reckoned as such from Jubilee to Jubilee, or whether it's a literal fifty-year count, directly affects where the Jubilee would have fallen in the reign of Josiah. Soooooo, any thoughts?

In terms of our current and modern dating system, what year did Joshua and the Hebrew nation cross the Jordan into the land of Canaan? Also, based on this what year would the first Jubilee year have occurred as described in Leviticus 25:1-4,8,9 > When you come into the land which I give you, then the land shall keep a sabbath to the LORD. 3 Six years you shall sow your field, and six years you shall prune your vineyard, and gather its fruit; 4 but in the seventh year there shall be a sabbath of solemn rest for the land, a sabbath to the LORD. You shall neither sow your field nor prune your vineyard.’ 8 “And you shall count seven sabbaths of years for yourself, seven times seven years; and the time of the seven sabbaths of years shall be to you forty-nine years. 9 Then you shall cause the trumpet of the Jubilee to sound on the tenth day of the seventh month; on the Day of Atonement you shall make the trumpet to sound.”

In the Wikipedia page about Jubilee, an anonymous writer added the following text : > "Jesus declared a Yovel by referencing Isaiah in 27 A.D., i.e. the 1666 year of entry into Canaan and the 34th 49 year Yovel Cycle according to the present day Samaritan Calendar." I would like to know whether this claim has any evidence, so that I know whether to keep it in that page or remove it.

What is a year dedicated to a certain saint or something else? Is it important? Does it require anything in particular of Catholics?

My Mother in her 90s and in treatment for Alzheimers would frequently go into a state of trance and chant about going to jubilee. Does "jubilee" or "going to jubilee" refer to heaven or eternity in Christianity?

Using the Hebrew calendar is there a way to determine the start and end of the seventy seven's. Will it end on a jubilee year, and how will that date translate to our current calendar, for example what year? Or will this require to much speculation and be outside the scope of this site?

Was that Pentecost, during which the Holy Spirit was poured out on the apostles in the book of Acts was also a time of jubilee? From what I see, the Pentecost was a holiday to commemorate God's giving Ten Commandments to His people - once every year. And the year of jubilee was established in the Old testament - according to what I can tell from Leviticus 25 - as a year of commemoration of the nation of Israel entering the promised land - once every 50 years. So, was that Pentecost in the Acts also a time of the year of jubilee?

There is a a range of opinion of different denominations on how far Mosaic law should be practiced. Messianic Judaism stands very much at the "one law" end of the scale. However, I am wondering how far this is practicable. Some Mosaic law is difficult to practice within a larger context. For example, Messianic Jews do not generally (as far as I know never) stone people. However, I was wondering if they practice the jubilee year ? Although this would be difficult for them concerning outside trading it could be practicable within the group.

Leviticus chapter 25 describes a "Sabbath year" for the land. Every seventh year the Israelites were not supposed to prune their vines nor plow or plant their fields. > Lev 25:3-7 (NET) (Lev 25:3) Six years you may sow your field, and six > years you may prune your vineyard and gather the produce, (Lev 25:4) > but in the seventh year the land must have a Sabbath of complete rest > – a Sabbath to the LORD. You must not sow your field or prune your > vineyard. (Lev 25:5) You must not gather in the aftergrowth of your > harvest and you must not pick the grapes of your unpruned vines; the > land must have a year of complete rest. (Lev 25:6) You may have the > Sabbath produce of the land to eat – you, your male servant, your > female servant, your hired worker, the resident foreigner who stays > with you, (Lev 25:7) your cattle, and the wild animals that are in > your land – all its produce will be for you to eat. Apparently the Jubilee year is every seventh Sabbath year, but has additional features. If I have misunderstood the text (I think the 49th year counts consecutively and the 50th counts inclusively so they come out the same) please let me know that too. The text does say they could eat the "Sabbath produce", I assume that was whatever grew by itself from the prior year's planting, yet it specifically excludes any grapes. God does say, in verses 19 to 22, that He will increase the harvest of the sixth year. I wonder how practical this is, and to what extent a miraculous harvest would be needed to provide enough to sow the land and eat through the eighth year. Is there anything in the Bible or history or tradition that would explain this better?