Did John Wycliffe affirm baptismal regeneration as a general rule of faith? Or did he hold a more symbolic view of baptism?

Wikipedia documents the following which occurred after the death (from a stroke) of John Wycliffe in 1384, at the age of 64 : >The Council of Constance declared Wycliffe a heretic on 4 May 1415, and banned his writings, effectively both excommunicating him retroactively and making him an early forerunner of Protestantism. The Council decreed that Wycliffe's works should be burned and his body remains removed from consecrated ground. This order, confirmed by Pope Martin V, was carried out in 1428. Wycliffe's corpse was exhumed and burned and the ashes cast into the River Swift, which flows through Lutterworth. What is the current Vatican's position on the digging up of Wycliffe's body and its being burned ? And why did the Council require this ? Was it to prevent John Wycliffe from arising from the dead in the resurrection ?

He's been called the "Eosphoros of the Reformation", but how did he come to believe that the Bible opposes the idea that papal authority is above government authority?

According to Bruce Shelley, in [*Church History in Plain Language*](https://books.google.com/books?id=RbfVAQAAQBAJ&pg=PA237) , John Wycliffe, the early dissident in Catholicism, accepted the sacrament of extreme unction: > He retained belief in purgatory and extreme unction However, this seems to contradict what Shelley writes next: > he admitted that he looked in vain in the Bible for the institution of extreme unction [...] The standard Wyclif used to judge the Roman Church was the teachings of Scripture. I have a feeling that Wycliffe's views on extreme unction were a bit more nuanced, or at least confusing, than that he simply accepted it. So: - What did Wycliffe believe about extreme unction? - If he accepted it, on what basis did he do so? Biblical (*contra* Shelley)? Or non-biblical? - If he rejected it, how did he explain [James 5:14–15](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=james+5%3A14-15&version=ESV) ? - Do his writings indicate that his views changed during his life?

I saw a movie of John Wycliffe's life, and it portrayed him as disagreeing that those dying in infancy go to hell. Instead, he cited David's belief of seeing again his dead infant son as proof that such infants go to heaven. Is it true that he taught this?