Church of England clergy obtain holy oils to anoint the sick - or those receiving the sacraments of the church - at the annual service at their cathedral, the Chrism Service . This has become harder to access during the COVID-19 pandemic. What options do clergy have if they run out of holy oil to anoint the sick?

If you perform the sacrament of Baptism on someone, you are "baptizing" them. If you do the sacrament of Holy Matrimony on a couple, you are "marrying" them, or alternatively "officiating the marriage". What is the proper term for a priest performing the sacrament of the Anointing of the Sick on someone? "Anointing" them? Or some other term?

In Catholicism, is a priest allowed to administer the "last rites" to himself (assuming no one else is there to do it for him)?

So you've killed dozens of people, cheated on wife, destroyed families blah blah. Then before dying the priest administers you the last rites. Is everything forgiven? Will you go to heaven because you confessed? I'm confused at this; what's the incentive to be good throughout life?

According to Bruce Shelley, in [*Church History in Plain Language*](https://books.google.com/books?id=RbfVAQAAQBAJ&pg=PA237) , John Wycliffe, the early dissident in Catholicism, accepted the sacrament of extreme unction: > He retained belief in purgatory and extreme unction However, this seems to contradict what Shelley writes next: > he admitted that he looked in vain in the Bible for the institution of extreme unction [...] The standard Wyclif used to judge the Roman Church was the teachings of Scripture. I have a feeling that Wycliffe's views on extreme unction were a bit more nuanced, or at least confusing, than that he simply accepted it. So: - What did Wycliffe believe about extreme unction? - If he accepted it, on what basis did he do so? Biblical (*contra* Shelley)? Or non-biblical? - If he rejected it, how did he explain [James 5:14–15](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=james+5%3A14-15&version=ESV) ? - Do his writings indicate that his views changed during his life?

In the Latin Catholic Church, would clerics administer the last rites if the sick person's illness is contagious and deadly? Diseases can be deadly and can spread by water, air, and/or bodily fluids. How would the last rites be modified to allow them to be performed while keeping the clerics safe from disease?

I was preparing for Catechism Class tonight on the the last things, the notes in my teachers manual say that unconscious people receive "apostolic pardon" if they get the anointing of the sick while unconscious, and should go to confession if they regain consciousness. What does that mean and how is it different from absolution that comes from the sacrament of reconciliation? [related question](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/33922/how-can-anointing-the-sick-confer-forgiveness-of-sins-in-catholicism)

In Catholicism, there are 7 sacraments. One of these is anointing of the sick or extreme unction. It is meant to provide comfort to the sick, peace and courage. In the event that the individual cannot make confession it is also said to be able to confer the forgiveness of sins. How can this last point be the case? Why is confession not required for absolution?

Of the seven sacraments in the Catholic Church. I see how each of them are some form of Sacramentum, an oath between man and God. 1. Marriage has a marital vow 2. Holy orders is a vow to be a priest, deacon or bishop. 3. Reconciliation is a resolution to "Go and sin no more" 4. In Holy Communion we say, Amen to "The Body of Christ" 5. In Baptism we resolve to enter more into the Body of Christ 6. and in Confirmation we renew and confirm that resolution. But, what is the oath in Anointing of the Sick? To die peacefully?

Canon law says that anointing of the sick is to be done to someone having attained the age of reason, same as reception of the Eucharist and the Sacrament of Penance. However, as "Food for the Journey", if a child is near death, do they usually still receive the Eucharist as Viaticum ? If you read the Catholic encyclopedia entry I linked to on viaticum it says that they are. But, I'm not sure if it's outdated because it seems to conflict with Canon Law. As [this answer](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/a/6110/4) states younger children receiving communion used to be normal, but not any more, is this the same for Viaticum or is it totally separate from the sacrament of anointing of the sick (other than the fact that they both usually take place before death).