**Ezra's Drastic Divorces** In the book of Ezra (ch. 9 and 10) we learn of Ezra being extremely agitated at the intermarriage of Jews with...Moabites. >When I heard this thing, I rent my garment and my mantle, and plucked off the hair of my head and of my beard, and sat down astonished. And at evening sacrifice I arose from my heaviness, and having rent my garment and my mantle, I fell up my knees, and spread out my hands unto the Lord my God...(Ezra 9:3,5) And later, Nehemiah suffered the same agony at learning of the same conduct. (Nehemiah 13:2,3) **Moabitess Ruth** And yet the great-grandfather of King David, Boaz, married a Moabitess, Ruth, with seemingly no reservation nor adverse consequence. >So Boaz took Ruth and she was his wife, and when he went in unto her, she bare a son...And the women her neighbors gave it a name, saying, There is a son born to Naomi, and they called his name Obed. He is the father of Jesse, the father of David. (Ruth 4:13,17) This Moabitess is even listed by name in the genealogy of Matthew: *Boaz begat Obed of Ruth* (Matthew 1:5) **But** if Israelites were forbidden to marry this type of foreigner, why is there no reaction to it by the Levites or the prophets or elders of Bethlehem? Such as was evident in the expulsion of such women by Ezra later? The family of Naomi lived in Moab, so the sons married there such women "out of availability" (?), and by some stretch be excused. But Boaz is in Israel (Bethlehem) where there were plenty of Jewish women available!

The Bible says: >KJV Ezra 1:8 Even those did Cyrus king of Persia bring forth by the hand of Mithredath the treasurer, and numbered them unto Sheshbazzar, the prince of Judah. But in the following chapters that name scarcely turns up. Instead Zerubabbel is portrayed as the prince of Judah in the place of Sheshbazzar. Are they the same people with two names? I would like an answer from biblical and historical sources.

If Cyrus king of Persia practiced the Zoroastrian faith and God (presumably Jehovah) moved his heart (2 Chronicles 36:22) and Cyrus prayed to him (Ezra 1:2), what are the biblical bases that Zoroastrians worship a different god than the God of the Bible? **2 Chronicles 36:22 NIV** > In the first year of Cyrus king of Persia, in order to fulfill the > word of the Lord spoken by Jeremiah, the Lord moved the heart of Cyrus > king of Persia to make a proclamation throughout his realm and also to > put it in writing: > > “This is what Cyrus king of Persia says: > > “‘The Lord, the God of heaven, has given me all the kingdoms of the > earth and he has appointed me to build a temple for him at Jerusalem > in Judah. Any of his people among you may go up, and may the Lord > their God be with them.’” **Ezra 1:2 NIV** > “This is what Cyrus king of Persia says: > > “‘The Lord, the God of heaven, has given me all the kingdoms of the > earth and he has appointed me to build a temple for him at Jerusalem > in Judah. I am not looking for opinion, but the biblical bases for either position.

As a Christian, I know we shouldn't have a "[canon within the canon](http://www.scriptoriumdaily.com/2011/09/19/canon-within-the-canon/) ", but I'll admit, I just can't get worked up over Ezra. I love Malachi. I could for a long time on 2 Peter. I can even find stuff in Leviticus worth reading, but try as might, I just don't see anything interesting in Ezra. Understanding that I really do see theology in really obscure places, can someone help me see what is theological about this book?