What are the most striking disagreements (if any) between Clement of Alexandria and Irenaeus? The unanimity of the early Church Fathers is something that is often presented as an indisputable fact. However, while they were all in agreement about some major points of faith, there might have been some disagreements on some minor things. So, the question is about that.

Where did Arius learn his theology? Did he rely on specific theologians that wrote before him? Origen? Clement of Alexandria? Lucian of Antioch? Were his ideas based on the Bible or on Greek philosophy? Was he part of a specific school of thought or did he develop an entirely new system?

In an answer to a related question ([What is the evidence that suggests that the Apostle Paul was married?](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/a/20410/21576)) , I encountered the following quote from Eusebius: > Clement, indeed, whose words we have just quoted, after the above-mentioned facts gives a statement, on account of those who rejected marriage, of the apostles that had wives. "Or will they," says he, "reject even the apostles? For Peter and Philip begot children; and Philip also gave his daughters in marriage. **And Paul does not hesitate, in one of his epistles, to greet his wife, whom he did not take about with him, that he might not be inconvenienced in his ministry."** ([*Church History*, 3.30](http://www.newadvent.org/fathers/250103.htm) , emphasis added) I'm not aware of any biblical passage where Paul *greets* his wife. The closest thing I can see, given the context, is [1 Corinthians 9:5](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1+corinthians+9:5&version=ESV) : > Do we not have the right to take along a believing wife, as do the other apostles and the brothers of the Lord and Cephas? (ESV) But there's nothing here about greeting a wife, or having one at all. Plus, two chapters earlier, he writes: > To the unmarried and the widows I say that it is good for them to remain single as I am. ([1 Co 7:8](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1+Corinthians+7:8&version=ESV) , ESV) So what gives? What could Clement/Eusebius have been referring to? A biblical text of which I am unaware? Some early apocryphal work? Is there any tradition, or scholarly opinion, of what text Clement of Alexandria is referring to?

Did Clement of Alexandria actually believe that Jesus was called *Iesous* in Greek and that it wasn't a translation of the Hebrew? Wikipedia cites the *Catholic Encyclopedia*'s entry on the [Origin of the Name of Jesus Christ](http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/08374x.htm) : > [Cyril of Jerusalem], however, appears to agree with Clement of Alexandria in considering the word *Iesous* as of Greek origin ([*The Pedagogue* III.12](http://www.newadvent.org/fathers/02093.htm)) But this doesn't seem to be addressed in that section of *The Pedagogue*.