Is having sex and returning a slave based on discontent a normal practice allowed in the sharia?

Is this type of returning ownership based on “discontent” legal according to the sharia? It closely resembles prostitution almost a loophole. Given one man owns her for the most part and is doing a sort of business. Not to mention the spread of stds. “They were in effect prostituted; not by being owned by a single man who sold their sexual favors, but by being sold from client to client, and thus frequently changing owners. This solved the ban of prostitution, since it was allowed for a man to have sex with his slave. Since the principle of concubinage in Islam in Islamic Law allowed a man to have intercourse with his female slave, prostitution was also practiced by a pimp selling his female slave on the slave market to a client, who was allowed to have intercourse with her as her new owner; and who returned his ownership of her to her pimp on the pretext of discontent after intercourse, which was a legal and accepted method for prostitution in the Islamic world.” https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/History_of_prostitution