Do Preterists believe that the prophecies in the Book of Revelation were fulfilled with the destruction of Jerusalem in AD 70?

In preterist interpretations, many of Jesus’ prophecies—especially those concerning the destruction of Jerusalem (e.g., in the Olivet Discourse)—are understood to have been fulfilled in AD 70. However, I am curious about how preterists treat the prophecies found in the Book of Revelation, traditionally attributed to John. One point of tension I am trying to understand is this: when Jesus spoke about “all things that are written” being fulfilled (e.g., Luke 21:22), the Book of Revelation had not yet been given to John and therefore had not yet been written. This seems to raise the question of whether Jesus’ statement can be applied to Revelation at all, since it was, at that time, still unwritten. Given that, do preterists (especially full preterists) include the prophecies of Revelation among the things fulfilled in AD 70? Or do they distinguish between what was already written at the time of Jesus’ statement and later revelations given to John? Additionally: - Is this one of the reasons partial preterists typically do not see Revelation as fully fulfilled in AD 70? - How do full preterists respond to the argument that Jesus referred only to what had already been written, not to future writings like Revelation? I am looking for answers grounded in specific preterist interpretations, along with scriptural and/or historical reasoning.