Where can I find a list of Popes & Cardinals who are ethnically Jewish or converted from Judaism? I got a list, but maybe someone already made one? I'll put my list in an answer. - ( Preview of next questions: Orthodox - ecumenical patriarchs of Constantinople besides St. Andrew? Anglicanism - Archbishop of Canterbury besides Justin Welby, if e even counts? Then Lutheran. Oriental Orthodox. Idk. ) - Update https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/105402/list-of-jewish-ecumenical-patriarchs-of-constantinople

Previously for Catholicism : https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/105244/list-of-jewish-popes-cardinals/105245#105245 Now for Orthodoxy ... **Question 1:** Where can I list of Jewish Ecumenical Patriarchs of Constantinople besides St. Andrew? **Question 2:** Also, what are the 'synonyms' for this? Based on Wikipedia ...searching 1. 'ecumenical patriarchs of Constantinople' - Nothing 2. 'Bishops of Byzantium' - Just St Andrew

On September 1, 1910, Pope St. Pius X required *The Oath Against Modernism* to be sworn to by all clergy, pastors, confessors, preachers, religious superiors, and professors in philosophical-theological seminaries. QUESTION: Have there been any other *Professions of Faith* in the Catholic Church since 1910? If so, what are they and to whom do they apply? Thank you.

In separate startling incidents, two Parish Priests of Roman Catholic Church of India reportedly gave up their life recently after having undergone treatment for psychological condition. In many parishes, the priests lead isolated life and are prone to suicidal tendency in case they have psychological disorder. Such incidences could have been avoided if the priests were withdrawn from the parish and kept in community life under observation. My question is: Has the Catholic Church issued any standing instructions to Bishops in order to stave off such unfortunate incidents?

If I'm from a Catholic Diocese that has a bishop who is its ordinary bishop, we're sort of a member under the wing of a neighboring archdiocese with an archbishop (this makes sense). But the archdiocese is adjacent to another archdiocese whose head is a cardinal. Does this cardinal have some power/jurisdiction/authority over the archdiocese/diocese I am a member of?

We read in Acts 28 how St. Paul survived the bite of a deadly viper in the Island Melita. In fact, we seldom come across Christian missionaries, pastors, or clergymen getting killed by snakebite. One exception is the case of Jamie Coot, the Pentecost pastor of Kentucky who was bitten to death by the rattlesnake he was handling during a service in Feb, 2014. One is inclined to believe that Christian pastors and clergymen, including those working in forested areas, enjoy a sort of God-given privilege, as was the case of St Paul, against death due to snake-bite. However, this assumption needs to be checked for factual veracity. **Have there been reports of death of Christian pastors or clergymen on account of snakebite in the history of the Church?**

In the Catholic Church, the clerical dress (cassock) of cardinals is scarlet red in color. Are there any other catholic prelates who may don red cassocks?

The Bible mentions that one of the miracles Jesus performed was the healing of Peter's mother-in-law. This makes it quite clear that Peter himself was married, and Peter is the considered the first Pope by Roman Catholics. I've also heard that many if not all of the first popes were married and had families. So, my question is this: When was it that marriage first became prohibited for priests and popes in the Catholic church (for Latin Rite priests)? > And immediately he left the synagogue and entered the house of > Simon and Andrew, with James and John. Now Simon’s mother-in-law lay > ill with a fever, and immediately they told him about her. Mark > 1:29-30 ESV

The Roman Catholic Church requires its priests to practice celibacy. This has not always been the case, though. In fact, it was not instituted until the 11th century. Protestant churches have no requirement of celibacy. So, what is the reason for this? Specifically why do Protestant churches, which began well after the practice had been instituted in the Catholic Church, do not require this of their pastors?

**What are the root causes of the recent clerical sexual abuse scandals within the Catholic Church?** A comment to this question (**Is it known which seminary or seminaries produced the majority of Catholic priests who were accused of sexual abuse in the USA?** ) lead me to ask this one: > Considering clerical abuse is a worldwide phenomenon that crosses all denominations, looking for a few seminaries as the root cause seems misguided. Protestant churches have no requirement of celibacy, but they are not immune to these vices either. What are the origins of this sinful phenomenon within the clergy of the Catholic Church.

I am trying to figure out the date when Agustín Fernández became canon priest of Durango, Mexico. I know these steps were taken: Some time in 1820, the bishop and cathedral chapter chose him as canon, seemingly with no formal oral examination. In January 1821, because of the Patronato Real , the King of Spain appointed him. In October, the Regency of the newly independent Mexican Empire accepted the King of Spain's appointment. Also in October, Fernández was prevented from going to Durango because the Regency was arranging a political appointment for him. In April of 1822, the Regency asked Durango to start paying his salary despite him "not having taken possession" of his prebend. With both the approval of the cathedral chapter, the King and the Regency, were there still more steps he needed to take to become a fully installed member of the cathedral chapter? Even though there is a long tradition of non-residentiary canons, would he have had to show up once, maybe just to make an oath before the bishop?

Requirements for ordination vary across denominations. Baptists and Pentecostals, for example, will ordain people without even a high school diploma, whereas many of the more liturgical denominations require masters and doctoral level degrees before one can even preach. How then, is one able to assess the academic qualifications of ordained clergy across denominations? In other words, is there a resource that would assist one in gauging the stringency of the qualification process before one is allowed to serve as preist, minister, or pastor? And, what common requirements for ordination can be compared across denominations, so as to be able to compare similiar qualifications across denominational lines.

We see the exhortation of St. Paul at 1 Timothy 3: 1-3: > The saying is sure: whoever aspires to the office of bishop desires a noble task. Now a bishop must be above reproach, **married only once**, temperate, sensible, respectable, hospitable, an apt teacher, not a drunkard, not violent but gentle, not quarrelsome, and not a lover of money. That implies that there was a custom of remarriage among the early Christians, which St. Paul would not allow in the case of selection of bishops. As for the modern Catholic Church, it has been prohibiting remarriage among all the believers. My question therefore is : at what point of time in its history did the Catholic Church start prohibiting remarriage among all believers?

Could anyone explain to me why some groups of Christians call their leaders "Father"?

Years ago I read in a book about the days of Constantine and how the early church fathers, who had been ducking the persecutors' swords for so long, were overwhelmed when the Roman State turned benign under Constantine and they began to shower gifts, including Salaries, on the clergy. Church buildings, basilicas, garments, etc. Eusebius in his Ecclesiastical History said something about the elders being dazzled by the wealth of material things. I have google-searched this topic but it is hard to narrow the language properly to find the answer: WHEN, specifically, was the first instance or instances of state-funded Christian ministers? My memory says it was indeed in Constantine's reign but I can find no evidence. Wikipedia on State Religion says "The first state-sponsored Christian church was the Armenian Apostolic Church, established in 301 CE.", but does not define such. I'll try to find its cited source doc. I did find this one source document (image below) that for now would be the earliest instance I van find that refers to “state” monetary support, if the Queen is considered to speak and act for the state. The King here seems to be Khosrov I, and date would be ~252-268ce Christian laity from earliest days, (Acts 2, and even earlier in Jesus's own ministry) supported their elders/leaders with hard goods or other contributions. What I'm asking is different: state-sponsorship via monetary support of the clergy [bishops, priests, etc]. Anyone have a source for this?

> **Matthew 16:19** > And I will give you the keys of the kingdom of heaven, and whatever you bind on earth will be bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth will be loosed in heaven. I recently read an article in which the Roman Catholic author states, > In the Catholic Church’s understanding, the office of “binding and loosing” which was given to Peter was also assigned to the whole college of apostles who in turn commission their assistants in ministry to do likewise. If it is understood that Jesus was talking to Peter, by what rationale or authority can this "office" be passed on from him to others?

Wikipedia doesn't seem to provide a fleshed-out etymology of this title. Who first held it? When did its usage become applied to all archdeacons. And do archdeacons ever have issues with the title, which doesn't necessarily indicate their priestly/diaconal status?

In the British Isles, bishops of both the Roman Catholic Church and the Anglican Churches are all styled "Right Reverend"; archbishops are "Most Reverend": > The Rt Revd John Smith, Bishop of Salisbury > The Most Revd Martin Jones, Archbishop of Liverpool However, in other countries, Roman Catholic bishops are Most Reverend, even where the a Church in the Anglican Communion has a fairly substantial presence (like the United States). In the United States, bishops and archbishops of The Episcopal Church [Anglican] follow the British model, whereas Roman Catholic archbishops **and bishops** are all "Most Reverend". How is that difference (between the custom in the British Isles and that in other Bishops' Conferences) explained? I *guess* that the similarity between the Churches within the British Isles is a hangover from the Reformation, and it would appear to indicate that the distinction existed in the pre-Reformation Church and was carried into the Church of England. In which case, why is there no difference between Catholic bishops and archbishops outside Britain now? When were bishops elevated to archbishops' style? Or, did the nascent Church of England separate the styles (so the Roman styles outside Britain are historic) and then the emancipated Catholic Church simply fall into line when the hierarchy was re-established in the United Kingdom? I don't know where to look for an accurate telling of the history. --- (I'm British. The question is occasioned by finding an American bishop styled as "Most Reverend" and thinking "But he's not an archbishop!")

**When did it become the norm for church leaders to get a formal Christian education and why did that process begin?** When I say formal education I'm **not** talking about the mentor/mentee style that Jesus did with his disciples. I'm talking about the following scenario: - A person independently enrolls in a Bible School/Seminary/Divinity school - They get a degree - They apply for pastor jobs and get hired as a pastor somewhere The reason I ask is because the aforementioned process isn't implied anywhere in scripture. The idea of it had to have come from somewhere and for some reason. --- Similar to this question , but I'm not asking whether or not this practice is supported by Scripture—I'm asking when it started and why it started.

I've heard the title of "Monsignor" used for bishops, archbishops, and even priests. Why are some clergy given this title and others not?