Some teacher (Goenka) says vedanānupassanā is bodily only because sukha and dukha in general are bodily. But the definition of sukha includes cetasikaṃ vā sukhaṃ too > Yaṃ kho, āvuso visākha, kāyikaṃ vā cetasikaṃ vā sukhaṃ sātaṃ vedayitaṃ: ayaṃ sukhā vedanā. > > (Cūḷavedalla sutta) So my question is, how a cetasikaṃ sukhaṃ different from somanassa?

I asked ChatGPT, *Is vedana a sanskhara?* Following is its answer: > In Buddhist philosophy, "vedanā" (feeling or sensation) is distinct > from "saṅkhāra" (mental formations or volitional activities), though > they are both components of the Five Aggregates (pañca-khandha) which > constitute a being. > > The Five Aggregates are: > 1. **Rūpa**: Form or physical body. > 2. **Vedanā**: Feeling or sensation (pleasant, unpleasant, or neutral experiences). > 3. **Saññā**: Perception or recognition. > 4. **Saṅkhāra**: Mental formations or volitional formations (includes all types of mental activities such as intentions, thoughts, desires, > and emotions). > 5. **Viññāṇa**: Consciousness. > > So, vedanā is not the same as saṅkhāra. Vedanā refers specifically to > the experiences of pleasure, pain, or neutrality, whereas saṅkhāra > encompasses a broader range of mental activities and processes, > including the volitional acts that condition future experiences and > actions. Do you agree with the answer?

Due to impermanance of everything, Are there anything to be happy or sad about ? Even about **dhamma** ? If something seems like to be happy, there are some reasons to not to be happy. 1. It is impermanant for sure. but also, 2. That **happiness make sadness in the future (future includes next lives)** (I need to be sure about this sententce, please mention about this in your answer) Are enlightened people happy ? Or neither happy nor sad ?

Does a Buddha or arahant like food and is mindful of that liking at all times or does liking just no longer arise? Does the Buddha like or dislike at the heart level and yet sees the heart objectively? Related to this question: https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/35349/what-is-the-basis

In terms of the effects of the attainment of arahantship over the arising of feelings (vedana): Do Arahants experience the arising of non-neutral (pleasure or displeasure) mental feelings? According to Sallatha Sutta, an Arahant will still experience physical feelings of pleasure and pain, but he will just see those feelings as feelings. What does this mean? If physical pleasure/pain arises, he will not experience a mental pleasure/pain? Or he just feel it without the arising of aversion, craving and ignorance? What happens in the case of the practice of Jhana? Doesn't that count as mental pleasure? If mental pleasure and pain are eradicate, does this mean that every mental phenomena will be felt as a neutral phenomena? For example: If a non-arahant person feels an unpleasent feeling when seeing a corpse or when thinking about a corpse, will the presence of such phenomenon (the corpse, or the idea of a corpse) will still give rise to an unpleaseant feeling after attaining arahantship? If the training under the Noble Eightfold Path helps to change the way the noble one feels the world, does this mean that everything feels neutrally after attaining Nibbana? EDIT: to make this clearer, I'll be more specific. I'm trying to fit what has been said above with what I read and interpret from Sallatha Sutta. On one side, I see that physical painful stimuli does not give rise to mental feeling. On the other hand, in MN 152, we see that a noble one seem to have some tendencies and inclinations toward some preferences over others, but he reacts with equanimity to the arising of liking and disliking. So, does the training changes all non-neutral feeling to neutral feelings, or changes the way the noble one responds to non-neutral feelings? If an arahant-to-be had a preference for pizza over tacos, will that remain the same after Nibbāna? What do the suttas tell us about this or your experience tell us about this? Thanks in advance for your time! Kind regards!

How should I understand dukkha (in all its amplitude and semantic complexity), if I want to see it through the lens of Dependent Co-Arising? Where is it classified, apart from the final nidana? Is it a sankhara? Is always something felt and, therefore, a feeling? If dukkha is always something to be felt (as vedana), then does that mean that everytime the chain of conditionality gives rise to the final nidana, the chain "starts again" in vedana? Thanks in advance for your time. Kind regards!