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Do Islam require a man to sexually pleasure his wife (wives)?

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The Jewish jurist and physician Maimonides penned a treatise entitled "On Coitus" in response to an inquiry from an official in the Ayyubid Sultanate who asked how he can sexually satisfy all the women from his harem without depeleting or otherwise negative affecting his own health. I was wondering why from the official's perspective this was required. What did he care if the women in his harem were not sexually satisfied (which I understood to mean brought to orgasm). Does Islam require a man to sexually pleasure his wife (wives)? If it does, then I can understood why the official in question was seeking Maimonides' advice as to how to accomplish this with his many wives without hurting himself. But if it doesn't require this, then I don't know why the man was asking about this. In Islamic jurisprudence, does a woman who is not sexually attended to by her husband allowed to ask a court for a divorce or something like that?
Asked by Reb Chaim HaQoton (123 rep)
Jan 25, 2025, 06:25 PM
Last activity: Jan 26, 2025, 06:13 AM