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From a Catholic perspective, why does Wisdom merely "infer" the things to come?

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I'm confused about Wisdom 8:8: > Or again, if one yearns for wide experience, > she knows the things of old, and infers the things to come. > She understands the turns of phrases and the solutions of riddles; > signs and wonders she knows in advance > and the outcome of times and ages. If I understand correctly, Wisdom is to be identified with Jesus' divine nature. Why, then, would she *know* the things of old but merely *infer* the things to come? Doesn't she fully know the things to come? The issue reminds me of Mark 13:32: > But of that day or hour, no one knows, neither the angels in heaven, nor the Son, but only the Father. If I understand correctly, the correct interpretation of Mark 13:32 is that Jesus' human nature did not know the day or hour. But his divine nature is omniscient, right? So this doesn't help resolve Wisdom 8:8. The original Greek word which has been translated as "infers" is εἰκάζειν; the root word is εἰκάζω. The LSJ lists three meanings for εἰκάζω: represent by an image, compare, and infer. Only the last seems to fit at all. Of course the text doesn't specifically say that Wisdom does not know the things to come, but it seems to seriously suggest it. What is the correct interpretation of this verse, from a Catholic perspective?
Asked by user22790
Nov 22, 2015, 06:10 PM
Last activity: Nov 24, 2015, 07:08 AM