In Mormonism, how is the doctrine of Adam & Eve inability to have children prior to the Fall explained?

Inspired by this answer to a previous question , in which the answerer stated: >"For example, the Book of Mormon adds the belief that Adam and Eve could not have children before the Fall." Supported by quoting from 2 Nephi 2:22-23: >And now, behold, if Adam had not transgressed he would not have fallen, but he would have remained in the garden of Eden. And all things which were created must have remained in the same state in which they were after they were created... > >And they would have had no children; wherefore they would have remained in a state of innocence, having no joy, for they knew no misery; doing no good, for they knew no sin. This leads me to ask how could this be true, given that God told Adam and Eve to "Be fruitful and multiply, and fill the earth, and subdue it; and rule over the fish of the sea and over the birds of the sky and over every living thing that moves on the earth." {Genesis 1:28 } It would *seem* that this is a clear contradiction between the *Book of Mormon* and the *Bible*. How does the LDS church address this apparently-blatant contradiction?