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God the Father punished the Son as sin-bearer: how does that prove God’s righteousness?

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Given that **in the gospel of Jesus Christ, “the righteousness of God is revealed” (Romans 1:16-17)**, and the gospel is the good news of what God did in Christ, how is this explained in the New Testament? It does not seem obvious at first sight. ***Yet in Romans 3:21 to 26 we are told this declares God’s righteousness.*** Could those who believe God’s righteousness was demonstrated at Golgotha please answer? **What key point(s) link God’s righteousness with the punishment of God's wrath poured out?** EDIT: To clarify, Isaiah said Messiah would be punished by God in chapter 53: "...we considered him stricken by God, smitten by him, and afflicted... the punishment that brought us peace was upon him... Yet it pleased the Lord to bruise him; he hath put him to grief." **Consider the basic premise of this Q to be Isaiah 53:4-5 & 10.**
Asked by Anne (47235 rep)
Sep 27, 2024, 02:11 PM
Last activity: Oct 20, 2024, 08:11 AM