Most Jewish and Christian scholars define πορνεία (sexual immorality) to include premarital sex. However, where either the old or new testament mention specific sexual immoralities, it's never included. In Leviticus 18 many specific acts are condemned, but not premarital sex. Likewise, Paul spoke specifically of incest in 1 Corinthians 5, adultery and prostitution in 1 Corinthians 6, and homosexuality in Romans 1. If premarital sex is indeed immoral, it is obviously the most prevalent form of immoral sexual acts by far, so then, why doesn't he repeatedly warn against it?

I'm reading what is perhaps the funnest and most authentic Christian memoir ever: [Angry Conversations with God: A Snarky but Authentic Spiritual Memoir](http://www.amazon.com/dp/B001UFP4X2/ref=r_soa_w_d) She writes about sex, saying at one point: >But according to American evangelical churchianity, I’d committed a sin worse than murder or genocide or trying to set myself up as a deity. I’d had sex! She learned this in her church: >Instead he produced two large pieces of cardboard that had been glued together. “Sexual intercourse is made for the covenant of marriage. It is a binding act that unites two into one flesh. But if you engage in sexual intercourse outside of marriage—” Pastor Norman yanked the two pieces apart. They shredded into chunks, one side clinging to the other, destroying the cardboard completely. “This is what happens if you have sex outside of marriage.” Well, okay then. Not doing that. He began reciting from his notes. “Sexual intercourse…” His Fargo accent turned the words into a sourball: “SECK-shull INN-turr-course. The question is, did her pastor get it right? This question is related to: - https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/694/what-does-the-bible-say-about-sex-before-marriage-premarital-sex - https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/778/is-premarital-sex-porneia But, I have a more focused question. Biblically, is there an example of a person or a clear doctrine wherein what most Americans / people in the West would consider premarital sex is specifically condemned? Specifically excluded for this question are: 1. adultery between two people where at least one is married (that seems to be the property crime in Exodus) and 2. prostitution (which seems to be the focus of 1 Corinthians 6). 3. Sexual worship, wherein the sex in question is less about "casual intercourse" than in performing some sort of ritual worship Casual Sex, I would argue, for most modern Westerners is usually a physical act of lust that may occur between unmarried people. I'm just trying to get a handle on that, separated from the case that Bibilically prohibited sex is a contractual and fealty-based matter rather than just two horny teenagers indulging their fleshy desires. While I am open to an exegesis that would contradict these assumptions, I am looking for a biblical mandate against what I would call "casual sex," meaning an instance where sex occurs without exchange of money or breaking an existing marital contract. In leiu of a strict biblical injunction, what is the earliest condemnation of such a sexual relationship?

[**Sex Before Marriage Is Not A Sin**](https://cluecho.com/8834/uncategorized/sex-marriage-not-sin/) I found this article that says that sex outside marriage is not a sin. Some samples are > Ruth and Boaz > > Really? Where does the Bible give a green light to premarital sex? > Perhaps the most striking example is in the story of Ruth, though > there are other examples as well. According to the Book of Ruth, when > the recently widowed Ruth and her mother-in-law Naomi were faced with > a famine in Ruth’s homeland Moab, they returned to Israel impoverished > and with little hope of survival. Ruth took to gleaning in the fields > to find food for herself and Naomi. The owner of the fields, a > relative of Naomi named Boaz, saw Ruth and was pleased by her. When > Naomi heard about it, she encouraged Ruth to adorn herself and > approach Boaz at night while he was sleeping to see what would happen. > Ruth took this advice, resting with him until morning after first > “uncovering his feet” (in Hebrew, “feet” can be a euphemism for male > genitals). The next day, Boaz goes to town to find out whether he can > marry her, and, luckily, another man with a claim to Ruth agrees to > release her. They do marry and together they produce Obed, the > grandfather of King David. > > None of this would have been possible if Ruth had not set out to > seduce Boaz in a field, without the benefit of marriage. [The Bible’s Contradictions About Sex](http://www.bu.edu/articles/2011/the-bibles-contradictions-about-sex/) Another is David and Betsheba. It's not a sin because Batsheba is not technically married. [David and Bathsheba](https://torahideals.com/essays-and-imaginings/david-and-bathsheba/) says it's not sin at all. Yet, not having sex outside marriage seems like the most talked about rules in christianity second only to believing Jesus is God. So what would be a good counter-argument? Also is there reasonable reason to say that this is very open to interpretation and that the bible is simply not clear about the idea? Is it okay to say that, yes it's sin and no it's not a sin is well within possible interpretation?