What evidence is there (if any) for the title 'Son of Man' in the New Testament to apply only to Jesus' earthly ministry to the Jews?
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I've heard this said, and wonder if a study of ***the application of that title in the Synoptic Gospels*** supports such a theory?
Is there any literature (books or articles) devoted to this, and (if so) can a synopsis of such be given by way of an answer?
I'm scoping this for only consideration of the Synoptic Gospel accounts regarding this, by those who accept that Jesus was uniquely designated "Son of Man" during his ministry on earth. Please note that this question is ***not*** wanting explanations of the history of that title - it seeks to **investigate the time period during which it applied to Jesus, and whether it applied only to his ministry to the Jewish nation during his ministry on earth**. I hope to ask a separate question on his other title (Son of God) later, and trust the two titles will not be conflated in answers here.
Asked by Anne
(42769 rep)
Nov 20, 2022, 04:34 PM
Last activity: Nov 24, 2022, 04:20 AM
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