According to Reformed Theology, what is the exegetical basis for the claim that 1 Timothy 2:4 means "all kinds of people"?
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I am not an expert with Hermeneutics or methods of Exegesis, yet I am in the process of learning such things. This particular verse is easier to understand in terms of a basic tenet of Hermeneutics, namely: **Context**.
Yet, in a Reformed book called "*What's so Great about the Doctrines of Grace"*, we have Richard D. Phillip's assertion as follows:
> "First are those that seem to teach that God wills the salvation of
> all people. An example is 1 Timothy 2:3-4, where Paul says that God
> "desires all people to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the
> truth." But who are these "all"? Going back to the start of the
> chapter, we see that Paul means all kinds or classes of people. He
> asks his readers to pray "for all people," such as "kings and all who
> are in high positions" 1 Timothy 2:1-2)." Pg 59
**Q: According to Reformed Theology, what is the exegetical basis for the claim that 1 Timothy 2:4 means "all kinds of people"? Did Richard D. Phillips make a tenable case?**
Asked by Cork88
(1049 rep)
May 6, 2022, 01:08 AM
Last activity: May 6, 2022, 03:49 PM
Last activity: May 6, 2022, 03:49 PM